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Not all the time, true, but where they do, that's AT.

It's largely a self-referencing circular argument, I'll admit: Tradition says that the term 'Apostle' applied to the Twelve and their appointed successors. But if you want to go on Scripture alone, what about Paul and James (the Less), neither of whom fit the criterion from Acts 1 from which you...

Yes, I am. Sorry if that wasn't made clear; it's implicit in the term 'Apostolic Tradition'.

I went for 'not unless the mother would die giving birth' - and then it's a question of whose life do you save. Why the exemption for rape, Bossman?

Original thread here

And you're still ducking the questions

From the horse's mouth

Plenty! Clarification of baptismal practices, Sunday services (nowhere in the NT is this prescribed) including who presides, ecclesiology (Tradition settles the congregational -v- presbyterian -v- episcopal modes which can all be argued from the pages of the NT firmly in favour of the episcopal...

But you still have the problem of interpretation if, by ad fontes, you mean the Scriptures alone, divorced from Apostolic Tradition.

Even if his wife left him for another man?

No, I asked a question - which you haven't answered. While I'm waiting, I'll ask another one: what does "children" mean? Does it mean - as Jerome has said - two or more? Does it mean offspring of any age or minors? If the latter, is a person disqualified from being a pastor when his youngest...

So, would you agree with me, then, that Apostolic Tradition can also properly be called "The Word of God"?

What if they can't have children? What if they're recently married and are deferring starting a family but nevertheless apply for the post of pastor at your church?

Thanks for that!

STORY HERESome questions: 1. Was he the victim of extraordinary rendition by the US? 2. Were UK agencies complicit in #1? 3. Did the US threaten to withdraw intelligence sharing if details of the rendition were publicised in the British courts, as two senior British judges allege? 4. If...

I'm not really wondering anything. I'm after definitions. The Bible being God's Word is not a problem for me because I'm not sola Scriptura - I believe that both Scripture and Tradition are God's Word because they self-reference as such. But I think it's more problematic if you're sola Scriptura...

(Presuming his first wife hadn't ended their marriage by her adultery) [ETA - OK, how do I do the whole poll thing? I just want one with a yes or no answer on it. Thanks!]

So 'Word of God' may = 'Bible' but may also equal oral teaching/ proclamation or Tradition...interesting Please cite the Scriptures from which this deduction can be made, then.

But we still have the problem that Heb 4:12 doesn't refer to the written word (II Tim 3:16 does - "Scripture") of God. It could equally refer to purely oral prophetic utterances which are/were not recorded in writing.

Thanks; I think we're getting 'warm'.