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This is reading the NT back into the OT, a common practice of covenant theologians, but not very valid theologically. I see no theological reason for doing so. Not really. "Caught up" in 1 Thess. 4:17, the most important rapture passage, is the Greek harpazo (ἁρλπἀζω) occurs in 12 other verses...

So you don't believe in a rapture? But in 1 Thess. 4:17 we are "caught up" to Christ in the clouds. And in Acts 1:11 Jesus will come in the clouds. this is quite different language than that used for the second coming of Christ. This is confusing. You have said there is "only one second...

Reasons I am not post trib (in addition to exegesis), because it makes no sense to me because: 1. It has Jesus making two trips, one after the other: coming down for the rapture, then coming for the 2nd coming. Human nature does not allow for that unless someone forgets something the first time...

Well, he's been post trib for a long time. Not sure I can convince him he's wrong! :Coffee

And? What does that mean to me? I'll be in the first resurrection, but certainly don't believe it is post rapture.

Okay, thanks.

Rev. 3:10 refers to the Rapture taking us away from the tribulation. The word "from" is the Greek ek, or out of, so the church will not go through the Tribulation, but be taken out before it.

Well, then, I apologize, but I haven't figured out yet where you are coming from. Are you post-trib, then, or what?

Okay, go ahead and discuss.

Right. And what does that mean? Is there a real, literal 1000 years or not?

No, there is a huge difference. If His kingdom were only of Heaven and not on earth, He would not have said "from" (Greek ek). If I say, "I work Tennessee" when I'm in Wisconsin, that means I no longer work in Tennessee. So when Jesus says His kingdom is from Heaven, that indicates a kingdom on...

I'm not really sure which post of mine you are answering here, nor exactly what you are trying to say. What position are you positing?

Hmmmmmm. :Thumbsdown

If he is, he is not understanding the doctrine. No one in dispensationalism calls the Rapture a "second coming." In the Rapture, as I'm sure you know, Jesus doesn't come to earth. And of course historical premillennialism has the same doctrine. It's Bible!

First of all, the meaning of the parable was very plain in v. 11. It was to counteract the disciples' thinking that the kingdom was coming right away. Since it is a parable, it is designed to have only one meaning or theme. Secondly, it is a parable, so therefore it is not designed to be the...

Not exactly. What Jesus actually said was "My kingdom is not of this world" (John 18:36), with the world "of" being the Greek ek, meaning "from." What are the "several" dispensational theories you mean? If you prefer covenant theology, it also has "several" theories, so what is your point with...

"Administration" is not the usual word for a dispensation, but not necessarily wrong. The Biblical term "dispensation" is the Greek oikonomia, occurring 7 times and meaning a stewardship. Charles Ryrie says, "A concise definition of a dispensation is this: a distinguishable economy in the...

Here is Since there is no satisfactory reason why the passage, if originally present in Matthew, should have been omitted in a wide variety of witnesses [doesn't list them--JoJ], and since copyists frequently inserted material derived from another Gospel, it appears that most manuscripts have...

He actually wrote a book against the KJVO movement: King James Onlyism: A New Sect, self published in 2006. It's over 600 pages, and has a lot of information about KJV history, English translations, the Greek texts, etc. However, he was well known as a Hebrew scholar, but was not a Greek...

The better style is one lesser reason I believe it is closest to the autographs, because it makes more sense for a text that would be verbally inspired. Whether it is the oldest is debatable from Byzantine textform standards. And there are very early mss with Byzantine readings. "In addition...