Did Jesus die in the same way for the sin of every single person, without exception, who has ever lived on the planet?
Not by any stretch of any scripture or imagination.
He is the propitiation for our sins, and not for ours only but also for the sins of the whole world.
He is the propitiation for our sins, as Jews talking and being talked to, and not only ours, as Jews, but also for the sins of God's Elect and remnant, from among the whole world of the Gentiles (who are customarily referred to as the 'world', in writings of the time, Jewish writings specifically, and in the Bible, itself.)
Ref: "For God so loved the world", of the Jews as well as the Gentiles.
That Gentiles have now been included prominently in God's plans of salvation and Worship, is a frequent message throughout the New Testament.
I Corinthians 12:12-14; "For as the body is one, and hath many members, and all the members of that one body, being many, are one body: so also
is Christ.
13 For by one Spirit are we all baptized into one body, whether
we be Jews or Gentiles, whether
we be bond or free; and have been all made to drink into one Spirit.
The same Spirit that gives gifts and callings to specific bodies of believers, is also the Same Spirit that adds individuals to the Lord's churches, by water baptism and the Spirit freely leads Jews and Gentiles to be members of one body and still working in the unity of one body of believers.
After all, they are then said to have been saved the same way, whether Jew or Gentile, and drank of One and the Self-Same Spirit, for salvation, so what is the problem with the two of them being added to the same church, such as they were there in Corinth, to Worship the Lord, together?
14 For the body is not one member, but many.
But how do you Calvinists (I am one) handle
1 JOhn 2:2?
Yes, it has been handled before;
"He is the propitiation for our sins...also for the sins of the whole world." I John 2:2.
That is how it is all handled.