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A Tale of Two Faiths

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Rippon

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BTW, which Presbyterians are you talking about? The same ones that Rippon is ranting about? According to him they are mostly apostate.
The majority of professing Presbyterians (in name only)in America are from PCUSA. They, for the most part are indeed apostate. do you disagree? If so on what basis? And how could they possibly be hyper-Calvinists?
I have defined Hyper-Calvinism
It is a relative term,
How in the world could it ever be considered a "relative term"?

--Basically the five-pointers are the hyper-Cals according to him.
And that is what I said.
That's pure drivel. From that inane thinking Dr.M-L-J, James Boice, B.B.Warfield, --even Spurgeon himself, would fall under the category of being five-pointers and yet by no stretch of the imagination be hyper-Calvinistic. You need to get more scholarly sources. They're stinking up the place.
What I know of TULIP, is that it does not lead to evangelism.
You are full of hot air.
I do know that there are Calvinistic churches on this board that evangelize. I never denied that. But their belief in evangelism and their belief in TULIP are contradictory. They fail to see that.
We fail to see spiritual discerment and functioning reason with that kind of mindset of yours.
 

Rippon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
(Institutes, III: xxii, 1)
Was Christ the eternal Son of God or not? Not according to Calvin.
In fact He was "presented this honor" of being the Son. What heresy!
It is a denial of the co-eternal and oneness of the triune Godhead.
As usual you deal in falsehood DHK. This snip is from 1:13:17:

"This distiction [between the Father and Son] did not take its beginning at the incarnation: for it is clear that the only begotten Son previously existed in the bosom of the Father (Jn.1:18). For who will dare to affirm that the Son entered his Father's bosom for the first time, when he came down from heaven to assume human nature? Therefore, he was previously in the bosom of the Father, and had his glory with the Father. Christ intimates the distinction between the Holy Spirit and the Father when he says that the Spirit proceedeth from the Father, and between the Holy Spirit and himself, when he speaks of him as another as he does when he declares that he will send another Comforter; and in many other passages besides (Jn.14:6;15:26;14:16)
 

Protestant

Well-Known Member
Dishonesty Among Calvin-hating Baptists

American Dream has made a brilliant point, one which I have kept to myself for some time. It would be quite constructive in understanding the grace of God had we the access to files which could prove the ‘silence’ of such Arminian Baptist ‘luminaries’ as Charles Stanley and Adrian Rogers during the decades of extreme persecution and segregation of Blacks in the South. It would be quite an education to discover how truly ‘holy’ these and other Baptist pastors were in turning a blind eye to injustice, cruelty and murder of their neighbors.

Baptist Group Votes to Repent Stand on Slaves
By GUSTAV NIEBUHR
Published: June 21, 1995
ATLANTA, June 20— Members of the Southern Baptist Convention, America's largest Protestant denomination and one founded in large part in defense of slavery, voted overwhelmingly in their annual meeting here today to "repent of racism of which we have been guilty" and to apologize to and ask forgiveness from "all African-Americans." http://www.nytimes.com/1995/06/21/us/baptist-group-votes-to-repent-stand-on-slaves.html
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
No, you don't know what it means--and it's obvious. Also, it's obvious you have no facility with the languages.

These 20 different translations... I'm sure they capture the passive as well as English can capture the Greek passive. Look the verb up for yourself. In John 3:3 it is passive (and Aorist, too).

The reason you don't "trust" my interpretation is because it is catastrophic to your presuppositions. My "interpretation" isn't an interpretation at all. It's actually what the text says. The verb is passive. That is a fact, not an interpretation. In Greek, by definition, the subject (Nicodemus, in this case) cannot perform the action of the verb on himself, it must be done to him.

Now, instead of this cockamamie stuff you're spreading about what you think you "know" to be true and that my "interpretation" is wrong, prove it wrong from the Greek. I doubt you'll accept this challenge because, as I've mentioned earlier, you appear to have no facility to work in the original languages and, therefore, have no ability for yourself to judge what the text actually says.

The Archangel

The only reason I have heard your interpretation is because you are the only one ever to present such a skewed interpretation of that passage because of your Calvinistic bias. And so it goes. Calvinists redefine words, misinterpret scripture, allegorize scripture, all to meet their own ends--to fit their theology into Calvin's theological box. That is truly pitiful.

Here is what A.T. Robertson says on the same verse:
Except a man be born anew (ean mē tis gennēthēi anōthen). Another condition of the third class, undetermined but with prospect of determination. First aorist passive subjunctive of gennaō. Anōthen. Originally “from above” (Mar_15:38), then “from heaven” (Joh_3:31), then “from the first” (Luk_1:3), and then “again” (palin anōthen, Gal_4:9). Which is the meaning here? The puzzle of Nicodemus shows (deuteron, Joh_3:4) that he took it as “again,” a second birth from the womb. The Vulgate translates it by renatus fuerit denuo. But the misapprehension of Nicodemus does not prove the meaning of Jesus. In the other passages in John (Joh_3:31; Joh_19:11, Joh_19:23) the meaning is “from above” (desuper) and usually so in the Synoptics. It is a second birth, to be sure, regeneration, but a birth from above by the Spirit.
He cannot see the kingdom of God (ou dunatai idein tēn basileian tou theou). To participate in it as in Luk_9:27. For this use of idein (second aorist active infinitive of horaō) see Joh_8:51; Rev_18:7.
His explanation of the Greek is eons away from yours, and yet uses the same Greek NT.
 

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
The only reason I have heard your interpretation is because you are the only one ever to present such a skewed interpretation of that passage because of your Calvinistic bias. And so it goes. Calvinists redefine words, misinterpret scripture, allegorize scripture, all to meet their own ends--to fit their theology into Calvin's theological box. That is truly pitiful.

Here is what A.T. Robertson says on the same verse:

His explanation of the Greek is eons away from yours, and yet uses the same Greek NT.

What is truly pitiful is that you can't seem to read or understand what Robertson is saying--and you don't realize that he and I are arguing the same thing.

But, as I'll point out, you cannot or will not discuss the verb--gennao--being passive and what that means...

Of course, Robertson defines the verb as Aorist and Passive, yet you have no clue what that means. Also, the Greek Aorist and the Passive are undefined by Robertson in the text excerpt you cite because one would have to know what the Aorist and Passive signify before reading Robertson with hope of understanding.

Can you tell what the Passive means? Can you make a case for your skewed interpretation of the verse (Where you have Jesus telling Nicodemus "go get yourself born again")? Likely not....

The Archangel
 

RLBosley

Active Member
The only reason I have heard your interpretation is because you are the only one ever to present such a skewed interpretation of that passage because of your Calvinistic bias. And so it goes. Calvinists redefine words, misinterpret scripture, allegorize scripture, all to meet their own ends--to fit their theology into Calvin's theological box. That is truly pitiful.

Here is what A.T. Robertson says on the same verse:

His explanation of the Greek is eons away from yours, and yet uses the same Greek NT.

Seems to me that this guy is saying the same thing Archangel is saying...
:confused:
 

Protestant

Well-Known Member
Passive in both first and second birth

By using the analogy of ‘birth’ our Lord 'shouts' its passive nature.

Our first birth was passive, God having united the sperm with the egg, growing the fetus in the womb until the time God willed its delivery.

It is my firm testimony that I was completely passive in my second birth as I was in my first.

It is also my firm testimony that my second birth was life so much more abundant than my first.

I have in my library a Hebrew-Greek Key Study Bible (KJV) with commentary by Greek-born Dr. of Theology, Spiros Zodhiates.

He is both Arminian and Futurist Dispensationalist. He corroborates the passive voice of the Greek verb which “represents the subject as receiving the action of the verb.”

The Greek verb translated ‘be born’ is aorist subjunctive passive according to the expertise of this Greek-speaking native.

Beware of Literal Interpretation

Another point which this text proves is the false notion that a literal interpretation of Scripture is the primary rule of interpretation.

Nicodemus was a ‘genius’ according to the measurement of ‘genius’ by Israeli standards, yet was completely misguided when he assumed Jesus was speaking literally of returning to the womb in order to be ‘born again.’

This same error has permeated the Christian Church by its resident 'geniuses' who teach Dispensationalism.

Dispensational Hermeneutics
by Thomas Ice
“Consistently literal or plain interpretation is indicative of a dispensational approach to the interpretation of the Scriptures," declared Charles Ryrie in 1965. https://www.raptureready.com/featured/ice/DispensationalHermeneutics.html

Dispensationalists need take a cue from Nicodemus before pontificating absurd literalism into what are clearly spiritual texts.

To add insult to injury they have the audacity to deny the clear literal teaching of Scriptures which declare spiritually circumcised Jews and Gentiles are one Body, one Temple, one Bride, one Church, one Nation: the true Israel of God.
 

The American Dream

Member
Site Supporter
DHK, here is a link that shows side by side comparison of the WCF and the London Confession 1689. You really ought to look over them and realize one does not have to choose one or the other. Reformed Baptists for example do not believe in sprinkling infants. I have to wonder if you have ever read either.
http://www.proginosko.com/docs/wcf_lbcf.html
 
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DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
What is truly pitiful is that you can't seem to read or understand what Robertson is saying--and you don't realize that he and I are arguing the same thing.

But, as I'll point out, you cannot or will not discuss the verb--gennao--being passive and what that means...

Of course, Robertson defines the verb as Aorist and Passive, yet you have no clue what that means. Also, the Greek Aorist and the Passive are undefined by Robertson in the text excerpt you cite because one would have to know what the Aorist and Passive signify before reading Robertson with hope of understanding.

Can you tell what the Passive means? Can you make a case for your skewed interpretation of the verse (Where you have Jesus telling Nicodemus "go get yourself born again")? Likely not....

The Archangel
I read Robertson over and over again. He doesn't come anywhere close to this drivel:
You seem to ignore the Greek which clearly states--in the Passive--that something must be done to Nicodemus that he, by definition, cannot do to or for himself.
In fact, the context speaks for itself. What does it say?

Joh 3:3 Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
Joh 3:4 Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?
--Okay, Nicodemus is thinking, "I need to be born again. Jesus said it is necessary." Therefore he answers Jesus and says,
"How can a man be born when he is old?..."
--How do I do this; what must I do... Obviously Nicodemus wanted to obey the command that Jesus gave him. He was looking for instructions that he could carry out what Jesus had said to him. HOW? he answered.
The context speaks for itself.

Joh 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
--It is in this verse that Jesus begins to tell Nicodemus the how.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
DHK, here is a link that shows side by side comparison of the WCF and the London Confession 1689. You really ought to look over them and realize one does not have to choose one or the other. Reformed Baptists for example do not believe in sprinkling infants. I have to wonder if you have ever read either.
http://www.proginosko.com/docs/wcf_lbcf.html

That is the inconsistency of some of the Reformed brethren on this board who use the WCF as one of their authorities and do quote from it (instead of the Bible). Why not just go all the way and accept infant baptism as well? They fail to take Calvinism to its logical conclusions. I keep saying that, but most of them don't believe me.
 

Rebel

Active Member
Yes, so pretend to try to act like an adult here.

Lies again. And are all my quotes from scholars and historians untrue?

You can say that again.

You are dishonest. But I'll say this: You are an expert dancer. You're excellent at "The Twist".

I know you speak for God, but he only spoke through a jackass one time.
 

Rebel

Active Member
The Consistoire(church) counsel was different from the civil counsel. The civil counsel carried out the execution, not the Consistoire. Calvin even pleaded with the civil counsel to give Michael a quick death. By the law only allowed burning at the stake. The counsel refused Calvin's request has done had done before and after. Over 10 years before this execution,the civil counsel ruled that Consistoire has no civil authority.

* I am not saying execution was the deserved punishment, but under that government.... It was the punishment. Calvin and Consistoire deemed Servetus a heretic. Which I think most people on the BB would say he was. The civil counsel which held authority of Calvin, carried out the execution. Calvin was not above this counsel.

I assume you believe the Pope to be a murder as well, for execution of heretics as well? I am not talking about wars. Just the heresy executions. Just looking to understand your point of view.

When the RCC was engaging in persecution and murder of Anabaptists and others, just like the Magisterial Reformers were, yes, the pope was guilty because he approved of it.

About Calvin and Servetus: "When Servetus mentioned that he would come to Geneva, "Espeville" (Calvin) wrote a letter to Farel on 13 February 1546 noting that if Servetus were to come, he would not assure him safe conduct: "for if he came, as far as my authority goes, I would not let him leave alive."

"On 20 October the replies from Zurich, Basel, Bern, and Schaffhausen were read and the council condemned Servetus as a heretic. The following day he was sentenced to burning at the stake, the same sentence as in Vienne. Calvin and other ministers asked that he be beheaded instead of burnt, knowing that burning at the stake was the only legal recourse. This plea was refused and on 27 October, Servetus was burnt alive—atop a pyre of his own books—at the Plateau of Champel at the edge of Geneva."


My, oh, my; the demonic Calvin wanted Servetus beheaded instead of burned at the stake.
 
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Rippon

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
You are dishonest.
Simply point out anything I said that was false.

Go to my quotes of actual church historians and Calvin scholars and point out, with all of your vaunted expertise, in what ways they are wrong. Surely, since you have claimed that you have read all their books on the subject you are in a position to school them.
 

Rebel

Active Member
That Baptists here are perpetrating lies and defending the monster Calvin is one of the most astounding things I've ever seen, and I've seen a lot.

Notice that Rippon will not respond to what I've said to him several times about what would have happened to him if he had lived in Calvin's Geneva. I guess he doesn't like having his bull gored.
 

Rebel

Active Member
Simply point out anything I said that was false.

Go to my quotes of actual church historians and Calvin scholars and point out, with all of your vaunted expertise, in what ways they are wrong. Surely, since you have claimed that you have read all their books on the subject you are in a position to school them.

Nothing you've said about Calvin is true.

Tell me, do you have an icon of him in your home that you regularly kiss? I mean, I know Baptists don't usually do such things, but they don't usually defend and idolize state-church butchers, either.
 

The Archangel

Well-Known Member
I read Robertson over and over again. He doesn't come anywhere close to this drivel:

In fact, the context speaks for itself. What does it say?

Joh 3:3 Jesus answered and said unto him, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born again, he cannot see the kingdom of God.
Joh 3:4 Nicodemus saith unto him, How can a man be born when he is old? can he enter the second time into his mother's womb, and be born?
--Okay, Nicodemus is thinking, "I need to be born again. Jesus said it is necessary." Therefore he answers Jesus and says,
"How can a man be born when he is old?..."
--How do I do this; what must I do... Obviously Nicodemus wanted to obey the command that Jesus gave him. He was looking for instructions that he could carry out what Jesus had said to him. HOW? he answered.
The context speaks for itself.

Joh 3:5 Jesus answered, Verily, verily, I say unto thee, Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.
--It is in this verse that Jesus begins to tell Nicodemus the how.

Nope.

Again, you seem to be missing the point. The verb gennao, being passive, cannot mean what you want it to mean, what you've been saying it means.

This isn't an issue of interpretation or context, it is an issue of what "is" is. "Is" does not mean was, it means is. You're doing something similar with the verb gennao. The context doesn't, can't, and won't override the passive verb.

What is more, you cite v. 5 as a contextual argument for Nicodemus being told to do something... But, in v. 5 the verb gennao is also Aorist and Passive.

Why your "interpretation" is wrong is seen in to facts about the verb itself:

1. As already mentioned, in a passive verb (which is not interpretive, it is based on the form of the verb in the text) the subject does not and--by definition--can not act upon himself.

So, the assertion that Nicodemus is seeking to do something to or for himself is in error and, no matter how much you want it to say what you're saying it says it won't.

2. The use of the Aorist tense further shows an action presented in its entirety. The use of the subjunctive mood (along with the third-class conditional statement) with the Aorist Passive suggest the possibility of a future fulfillment--but the Passive means that it is something that--if it is to be done at all--will be done to Nicodemus, not by Nicodemus.

Face it, DHK, you're never going to be right about this. You can kick against the goads of the Greek grammar all you want, but this passage will never say and will never mean what you think it means.

Again, I challenge you to explain your "interpretation" from the Greek. Tell me why gennao isn't to be taken as an Aorist Passive. You've already demonstrated that you can't do what I'm asking and in that demonstration of "lack-thereof" you have also shown that you're simply out of your league. You have no facility in the languages. All you can do is reference AT Robertson (who is a great scholar, by the way). But, even in referencing him you've shown that you have no idea what he's saying.

The Archangel
 

McCree79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
When the RCC was engaging in persecution and murder of Anabaptists and others, just like the Magisterial Reformers were, yes, the pope was guilty because he approved of it.

About Calvin and Servetus: "When Servetus mentioned that he would come to Geneva, "Espeville" (Calvin) wrote a letter to Farel on 13 February 1546 noting that if Servetus were to come, he would not assure him safe conduct: "for if he came, as far as my authority goes, I would not let him leave alive."

"On 20 October the replies from Zurich, Basel, Bern, and Schaffhausen were read and the council condemned Servetus as a heretic. The following day he was sentenced to burning at the stake, the same sentence as in Vienne. Calvin and other ministers asked that he be beheaded instead of burnt, knowing that burning at the stake was the only legal recourse. This plea was refused and on 27 October, Servetus was burnt alive—atop a pyre of his own books—at the Plateau of Champel at the edge of Geneva."


My, oh, my; the demonic Calvin wanted Servetus beheaded instead of burned at the stake.
Yeah.....in a previous post I already said Calvin asked them to change to penalty from burning to beheading. The consul refused, because Calvin had no say in the punishment. If you were on the religious counsel in Geneva, would you have found Micheal innocent of heresy? If you found him guilty, the city government would put him to death. What Micheal was doing was heresy. Do you lie and free a heretic, or let him die?

So, in Tyrol, where the Anabaptists had a violent uprising to bring religious reform.....that would make them murders to. So, murders killing murders. The world was a violent place. Still is outside of leading economic countries.

At what point did Calvin torture or execute a Anabaptist?
 
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McCree79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
I don't remember who it was that brought up abortion, but that is a very good point. We are worried about one man that Calvin may or may not of killed. How many of us are actively fighting against abortions? 115,000 babies are killed every day. Calvin 1 murder. Modern Christians....42 million murders(abortions) a year. And these babies have done nothing to provoke death. If you aren't speaking out, writing to congress,....doing something to fight abortion....our sin is much greater than Calvin's. If he was demonic, we are Satan incarnate.
 

DHK

<b>Moderator</b>
Nope.

Again, you seem to be missing the point. The verb gennao, being passive, cannot mean what you want it to mean, what you've been saying it means.

This isn't an issue of interpretation or context, it is an issue of what "is" is. "Is" does not mean was, it means is. You're doing something similar with the verb gennao. The context doesn't, can't, and won't override the passive verb.

What is more, you cite v. 5 as a contextual argument for Nicodemus being told to do something... But, in v. 5 the verb gennao is also Aorist and Passive.

Why your "interpretation" is wrong is seen in to facts about the verb itself:

1. As already mentioned, in a passive verb (which is not interpretive, it is based on the form of the verb in the text) the subject does not and--by definition--can not act upon himself.

So, the assertion that Nicodemus is seeking to do something to or for himself is in error and, no matter how much you want it to say what you're saying it says it won't.

2. The use of the Aorist tense further shows an action presented in its entirety. The use of the subjunctive mood (along with the third-class conditional statement) with the Aorist Passive suggest the possibility of a future fulfillment--but the Passive means that it is something that--if it is to be done at all--will be done to Nicodemus, not by Nicodemus.

Face it, DHK, you're never going to be right about this. You can kick against the goads of the Greek grammar all you want, but this passage will never say and will never mean what you think it means.

Again, I challenge you to explain your "interpretation" from the Greek. Tell me why gennao isn't to be taken as an Aorist Passive. You've already demonstrated that you can't do what I'm asking and in that demonstration of "lack-thereof" you have also shown that you're simply out of your league. You have no facility in the languages. All you can do is reference AT Robertson (who is a great scholar, by the way). But, even in referencing him you've shown that you have no idea what he's saying.

The Archangel
I can give you a reasonable exposition of John chapter three.
What you can't do, using your Greek, is force it into any of the translations I have read (and that is plenty) and make sense of it. The only past or aorist that Christ is referring to is "the first birth," his physical birth. Nicodemus needed still in the future to be born again. At that time, the time that Christ was speaking, he had not yet been regenerated. How then could Christ be speaking in the passive and aorist. You don't make sense.

Neither would Christ speak in the mystical and allegorical language of both Calvin and Augustine to Nicodemus, a ruler of the Jews.
The passage is fairly simple and straight forward for those who will accept the truth.
 
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