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Angels?

th1bill

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Greetings th1bill. Hope and peace to you and yours.

I noticed Ben responded to your post. I thought that I would add a little more insight. I will use NKJV for this added comment...

Within Genesis 4:25 (above) we see the biblical text in NKJV English say "she bore a son". The Hebrew word used in the text is בֵּן (Strong's-H1121; bēn) which is most commonly translated "son" or "children/child". This word within Gen 4:25 is properly expressed by the English word "son" in most all translations, imo.

However, as we read further in Genesis 4:25, the NKJV then says, "For God has appointed another seed...". The Hebrew word that is translated to "seed" by NKJV is זֶרַע (Stong's-H2233; zeraʿ). This is not the same Hebrew word that is previously translated to "son" within Gen 4:25. This word, zeraʿ, according to Strong's means; seed; figuratively, fruit, plant, sowing-time, posterity:—x carnally, child, fruitful, seed(-time), sowing-time.

For this second Hebrew word, זֶרַע (Stong's-H2233; zeraʿ), various versions have translated it "offspring" (ESV), "seed" (KJV, NKJV, LSB), "child" (NASB20, NIV), and "son" (NLT).

IMO, "seed" is the more accurate representation of what the author meant due to the use of the same Hebrew word being used in Genesis 3:15, that is, זֶרַע (Stong's-H2233; zeraʿ).

The two English words "seed" found in Gen 3:15 is translated from the Hebrew word זֶרַע (Stong's-H2233; zeraʿ) which is the exact word used in Gen 6:25.

Peace to you brother
I see the usage now, thabks.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
It is difficult to determine whether the phrase "sons of God" found in Gen 6:2, Gen 6:4 and Job 1:6, Job 2:1 and Job 38:7 is used to refer to the same entities. In Job 38:7 the phrase seems to refer to angels as humans did not exist would God formed the world on Day 3 in the Genesis 1 account. However in Genesis 6:2 and 6:4, the phrase could refer to the godly line of descent from Adam to Jesus.
 

th1bill

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
It has been pointed out to me by a former pastor and friend of mine that I err in presenting evidence. The reason I used early in my walk with Christ is, however, correct. Angels are spirit beings, and "not given in marriage" seems to imply that they do not reproduce. Also, Yehovah God does not sin nor propitiate sin, and with His foreknowledge of events, if He gave an Angel human form, knowing he would capitulate with humans to produce super beings, He would be guilty of sin, God forbid! Angels cannot be found in human form under any circumstance that precludes the involvement of Yehovah. This should end such endeavors being considered as possible.
 

Van

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
It has been pointed out to me by a former pastor and friend of mine that I err in presenting evidence. The reason I used early in my walk with Christ is, however, correct. Angels are spirit beings, and "not given in marriage" seems to imply that they do not reproduce. Also, Yehovah God does not sin nor propitiate sin, and with His foreknowledge of events, if He gave an Angel human form, knowing he would capitulate with humans to produce super beings, He would be guilty of sin, God forbid! Angels cannot be found in human form under any circumstance that precludes the involvement of Yehovah. This should end such endeavors being considered as possible.
I have no idea what your position is.

Can angels manifest in human form. I believe scripture teaches Yes. See Gen 18:1-2 which refers to men, but when described in Gen 19:1 two were angels.

Does God allow His creations to autonomously sin? I believe scripture teaches Yes. Otherwise God would be the author of sin.

Were the "Niphilim" angels in human form, or extra large human what might be called giants? I believe scripture teaches No. They were perceived to be efficient warriors.
 
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