Another Abortion Poll

[Marcia]

I have no problem saying a pregnant woman is with child. And I use the same word child for a pregnant woman as I do a young child. Using the same word doesn't prove the Lords view on anything but the word child.

Ex 21:22 If men strive, and hurt a woman with child, so that her fruit depart from her, and yet no mischief follow: he shall be surely punished, according as the woman's husband will lay upon him; and he shall pay as the judges determine.
23 And if any mischief follow, then thou shalt give life for life,

The common understanding of the word "mischief" in this verse is child that is fully formed. So to translate, if you cause a woman to have a miscarriage and the child was not fully formed, you will be punished according to the husband and fined according to the judges. However, if the baby was fully formed and if the baby or the mother does not live then you shall be put to death.

If God considers life beginning at conception, why would He allow a different punishment for a fully formed fetus than he does one that is not fully formed?

LeBuick says he's not posting anymore on abortion - too bad as I'd like to interact on this passage.

Verse 22 refers to an action (a fight) that accidentally causes a miscarriage or possibly even an early labor and birth. Accidentally causing either of these is not the same thing as an abortion.

An abortion is deliberate and I doubt there were abortions among the Jews at that time. Possibly among the pagans using certain herbs; nevertheless, what is referred to above is the result of an accident. God also sees manslaughter different from murder, so this is consistent.