Reading several commentaries on Revelation, each point to the need to understand the book as written in apocalyptic form as a literary genre. Mounce points out that this is a type of literature that flourished from about 200 BC to 100 AD, and indicates that the book differs on a few points from apocalyptic literature. Still, going through the commentary it is often pointed out that this passage, or that passage, utilizes common aspects of the literary form to illustrate, symbolize, or highlight subjects either directly (cities, historical events) or abstractly (numerology).
My question is concerns the nature of interpretation when it comes to this type of material. On one hand, it seems that we are looking to the genre to interpret the message. And this makes sense to me. If apocalyptic, as a literary genre, was popular during the writing of Revelation then it seems to me that the original audience would have interpreted the message within the mode with which they were familiar.
But on the other hand, as a literary genre it is described as mimicking Old Testament prophesies and visions. If Revelation was written without consideration to genre, but as a direct prophesy (Revelation calls itself a prophesy in 1:3; 22:7; 10, 18, 19), then using apocalyptic as a literary genre to interpret the message may be misleading. It may be an instance of the “tail wagging the dog” as the genre being used to interpret Revelation may itself be aping the mode of the book.
My question is, in interpreting Revelation (and, I suppose, certain OT passages as well), how much should we rely on extra-biblical sources and forms?
My question is concerns the nature of interpretation when it comes to this type of material. On one hand, it seems that we are looking to the genre to interpret the message. And this makes sense to me. If apocalyptic, as a literary genre, was popular during the writing of Revelation then it seems to me that the original audience would have interpreted the message within the mode with which they were familiar.
But on the other hand, as a literary genre it is described as mimicking Old Testament prophesies and visions. If Revelation was written without consideration to genre, but as a direct prophesy (Revelation calls itself a prophesy in 1:3; 22:7; 10, 18, 19), then using apocalyptic as a literary genre to interpret the message may be misleading. It may be an instance of the “tail wagging the dog” as the genre being used to interpret Revelation may itself be aping the mode of the book.
My question is, in interpreting Revelation (and, I suppose, certain OT passages as well), how much should we rely on extra-biblical sources and forms?