Are you advocating soul sleep?
I'm advocating what the bible says.
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Are you advocating soul sleep?
I'm advocating what the bible says.
Don't you mean pre Resurrection?A couple of problems with the concept of soul sleep post-resurrection.
2 - It presumes that Rev 21 is linear and literal.
Not if you are advocating soul sleep!
Do you know what it means to be "asleep in Christ"? Or not?
Yep, it means your body is dead.
Do you know what it means to be "asleep in Christ"? Or not?
So are the bodies of unbelievers who've rejected Christ. So again, do you know what it means to be "asleep in Christ?"
Soul sleep is the doctrine of the Watchtower Society.
I've never once used the term "soul sleep". Only you have. I've used the term "asleep in Christ" which the bible uses. Don't you like the terminology of the bible? Would you prefer that I not use God's terminology?If so, why not?
Then quit playing cutesy word games and tell what you understand "asleep in Christ" to mean.
I go to sleep in Jesus Christ every night, sleep all night in Jesus Christ, and wake up each morning in Jesus Christ. Some day my spirit/soul will go into the presence of the Triune God to await in conscious praise of God the resurrection of the glorified body.
Don't patronize me. You're the one who's accusing me of things I didn't say. If you're going to be argumentative instead conversational, then I have no desire to converse with you. Asleep in Christ means that our body decays but Christ's spirit in us lives on. Once we are born again of the Holy Spirit, that Spirit never dies. If you think he does, then you do not agree with Jesus that we have eternal life inside of us.
Don't lie about what I said! I have made it perfectly clear that the spirit/soul of the dead believer goes immediately into the presence of God and that it is in a conscious state.
I never accused you of anything. I asked a very logical and simple question. You have used the phrase "asleep in Christ" in 4 posts and yet would not state how you interpreted that phrase. I call that being "cutesy".
Even with the above post you still have nor stated how you really understand the phrase "asleep in Christ". Though you say that the spirit of the believer never dies that does not answer the question as to whether or not you believe that the spirit/soul of the believer is in a conscious state or an unconscious state after the death of the body.
Post #99
Read Rev. 21 about the New Jerusalem which is our final destination. It comes after the great white throne judgment at which time each of us will be called to account and take the particular "room" that Christ has prepared for us. before then, we will simply be asleep in Christ which is paradise, but not our final resting place.
Post #100
Are you advocating soul sleep?
Post #114
No one asked me to interpret it! So I assumed people knew what it meant until you called what I said "soul sleep" which is a lie. Then I asked you what it means. Then you asked me what it means to be asleep in Christ and I answered you.
So instead of making false accusations about me to begin with all you needed to do was ask me what my interpretation of being "asleep in Christ means." So you're the one who's playing games and I have no desire to be a party to them any more.
Winman
Your response ignores Ecclesiastes 12:7 as well as the ascension of Enoch and Elijah!
Ecclesiastes 12:7 specifically states that the spirit/soul of man returns to God. As for Enoch and Elijah they were apparently taken to heaven in bodily form.
Ecclesiastes 12:7 Then shall the dust return to the earth as it was: and the spirit shall return unto God who gave it.
John Gill writes of this passage as I have stated before:
Furthermore, you completely misinterpret the passage from Luke. I believe that this passage is a parable and Verse 31 refers to the bodily resurrection of Jesus Christ. Even though He rose from the dead He was still rejected and is still rejected by most Jews. John Gill also writes of this passage:
Now what does Gill say about Ephesians 4:9 from the passage you presented:
Ephesians 4:8-10
8. Wherefore he saith, When he ascended up on high, he led captivity captive, and gave gifts unto men.
9. (Now that he ascended, what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth?
10. He that descended is the same also that ascended up far above all heavens, that he might fill all things.)
Ver. 9. Now that he ascended, &c.] These words are a conclusion of Christ's descent from heaven, from his ascension thither; for had he not first descended from thence, it could not have been said of him that he ascended; for no man hath ascended to heaven but he that came down from heaven, Joh 3:13 and they are also an explanation of the sense of the psalmist in the above citation, which takes in his humiliation as well as his exaltation; which humiliation is signified by his descent into the earth:
what is it but that he also descended first into the lower parts of the earth? this the Papists understand of his decent into a place they call Limbus Patrum, which they make to be contiguous to hell; and where they say the patriarchs were detained till Christ's coming; and that he went thither to deliver them out of it; and that these are the captivity he led captive; all which is fictitious and fabulous: for certain it is, that the place where Abraham was with Lazarus in his bosom was not near to hell, but afar off, and that there was a great gulf between them, Lu 16:23,26 and the spirits or souls of the patriarchs returned to God that gave them, when separated from their bodies, as the souls of men do now, Ec 12:7 nor did Christ enter any such feigned place at his death, but went to paradise, where the penitent thief was that day with him; nor were the patriarchs, but the principalities and powers Christ spoiled, the captivity he led captive and triumphed over: some interpret this of Christ's descent into hell, which must be understood not locally, but of his enduring the wrath of God for sin, which was equivalent to the torments of hell, and of his being in the state of the dead; but it may rather design the whole of his humiliation, as his descent from heaven and incarnation in the virgin's womb, where his human nature was curiously wrought in the lowest parts of the earth; and his humbling himself and becoming obedient unto death, even the death of the cross, when he was made sin and a curse for his people, and bore all the punishment due to their transgressions; and his being in Hades, in the state of the dead, in the grave, in the heart of the earth, as Jonah in the whale's belly: reference seems to be had to Ps 139:15 where "the lower parts of the earth", is interpreted by the Targum on the place of amad aoyrk, "his mother's womb"; and so it is by Jarchi, Aben Ezra, Kimchi, and Ben Melec. The Alexandrian copy and the Ethiopic version leave out the word "first" in this clause.
Sorry Winman but I have to believe Scripture such as Ecclesiastes 12:7 and the passages regarding Enoch and Elijah rather than you. Also I must accept Gill's interpretation of certain passages rather than yours, particularly since I believe yours to be incorrect.
Where did they go then...and why would this be any different than dying first? Flesh and blood cannot inherit the kingdom of God.Enoch and Elijah did not die, so they would not go to the place of the dead before Christ's ascension.