convicted1
Guest
That may be true...I honestly don't know for sure. So, maybe I should be careful about how I express the notion that there are NO dead infants who are in Hell...possibly, they are somehow "saved" (but that assumes "Original Guilt") and frankly...I do not presently accept or assume that...It could be true I guess. But, we now then have a quandry don't we???? If all who die in infancy are somehow "covered" or "forgiven" or are party to "grace" or (pick your verbiage) then it now behooves us, as Christians, to attempt to ensure that as many people die in infancy as concievably possible...Abortion, then, is God's greatest harvest of souls.... We cannot argue from some ignorance that "maybe they will all be saved"...because we absolutely know better. We are then left with a Calvinist assumption that only "elect" infants are saved...or we must think otherwise....I think "Original Guilt" might be the assumption we are making, which is giving you some pause. I don't blame you, it has dominated much of my thinking for most of my life...But we either are somehow forced to believe these possibilities:
1.) They are all born "guilty" and "condemned" but God saves them without respect to whether they ever do or do not, acknowledge him.
2.) There are some who are "elect" and will therefore be saved, and some who won't...and...sux to be the infant who wasn't "elect".
3.) None of them are, as of yet, actually guilty, and if they are "saved" than it is legally un-questionable as they are yet guilty of nothing, and they are therefore not discriminated against...(because they are too young to accept)...but neither are they given a "special" form of grace unavailable to all of us who had the mis-fortune to grow-up, because they are simply not legally guilty of any wrong-doing as we on this board obviously are...
An assumption of "Original Guilt" is critical here....and I am not sure, brother, whether that is supported Scripturally. It may be. But I am questioning whether the Bible itself, and not merely my own Baptist tradition...which stems from much Calvinist assumption... teaches this notion or not. Does it?
Well, the bible does state than "to know to doeth good, and doeth it not, to him, is sin". Does an infant/child really know what is "good" and/or "bad in God's sight?
A few years ago, a child accidently shot, and killed one of their siblings, when they found a loaded gun in their parent's car. They had just finished eating at a restaurant, and the mother was strapping their kids in when this happened. My dad's cardiologist was in the restaurant, and he went out and administered CPR until the ambulance came. That being said, the child died.
Now, let's assume that the police turns over the evidence to the DA. The DA examines the evidence and decides to not prosecute the child(the parents? now that's another kettle of fish, altogether). Why would the DA decide against prosecuting this child, eventhough, the evidence shows beyond a shadow of doubt(that's all any DA needs to "hang" the defendant, btw) that that child found the gun, squeezed the trigger, and indeed, fired the fatal shot? It has to do with intent. Sin isn't the lacking of something, as some on here purport, but is something. It is a knowing and willing rebellion against God and His Command(s).
The child that gets caught and lies, did so, not knowing that they did so in the sight of God, but to keep their fanny outta the fire.
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