Revmitchell: "When one does not have a basic understanding of proper exegesis they can come up with all kinds of wild doctrines to fit their presuppositions."
But your negative attitude towards tongues is birthed in an uneducated Baptist Ghetto that ignores Greek nuance and the relevant cultural background that applies "glossai" to oracular ecstatic speech that is mere gibberish in need of interpretation. My positive attitude is based on solid academic Bible commentaries written by scholars with no dog in this fight. I remind readers that my opponents freeze liken Bambi in the headlights when faced with my OP's detailed exegesis that they are unable to address, and so, ignore.
Revmitchel: "Paul did not say the tongues in Corinth were the tongues of angels, nor did he say that we would even be able to do so. His comment on his not speaking in angels tongues was hyperbole."
Academic commentaries with no pro-Pentecostal bias refute your arbitrary claim. Typical are Hans
Conzelmann's observations on 1 Cor 13:1 in his magisterial commentary "! Corinthians, p. 221:
"Paul is..after all thinking realistically of the language of angels., cf. 2 Cor 12:4, and further Ascension of Isaiah 7:15-37; Testament of Job 48-50: Job's daughters speak in the dialect of various classes of angels. A realistic interpretation is also indicated by the word order (glossais and lalo separated by ton anthropon; kai thereby acquires an intensifying effect."
Conzelmann might have added the example of first-century rabbi Yohanan ben Zakkai who is famous for his ability to interpret angel speech. Also you overlook my point that Paul refers to the Corinthian tongues speakers as "zealots of spirits" (14:12) and "spirits" (pneumata) is a standard term for "angels" (see Hebrews 1:7). No hyperbole exists yet in Paul's phrase, "Though I speak in the tongues of men and of angels..."
But your negative attitude towards tongues is birthed in an uneducated Baptist Ghetto that ignores Greek nuance and the relevant cultural background that applies "glossai" to oracular ecstatic speech that is mere gibberish in need of interpretation. My positive attitude is based on solid academic Bible commentaries written by scholars with no dog in this fight. I remind readers that my opponents freeze liken Bambi in the headlights when faced with my OP's detailed exegesis that they are unable to address, and so, ignore.
Revmitchel: "Paul did not say the tongues in Corinth were the tongues of angels, nor did he say that we would even be able to do so. His comment on his not speaking in angels tongues was hyperbole."
Academic commentaries with no pro-Pentecostal bias refute your arbitrary claim. Typical are Hans
Conzelmann's observations on 1 Cor 13:1 in his magisterial commentary "! Corinthians, p. 221:
"Paul is..after all thinking realistically of the language of angels., cf. 2 Cor 12:4, and further Ascension of Isaiah 7:15-37; Testament of Job 48-50: Job's daughters speak in the dialect of various classes of angels. A realistic interpretation is also indicated by the word order (glossais and lalo separated by ton anthropon; kai thereby acquires an intensifying effect."
Conzelmann might have added the example of first-century rabbi Yohanan ben Zakkai who is famous for his ability to interpret angel speech. Also you overlook my point that Paul refers to the Corinthian tongues speakers as "zealots of spirits" (14:12) and "spirits" (pneumata) is a standard term for "angels" (see Hebrews 1:7). No hyperbole exists yet in Paul's phrase, "Though I speak in the tongues of men and of angels..."