Dr. L.T. Ketchum said:At least you are a TRUE Lutheran, for Luther always believed in the Roman Catholic doctrine of Transubstantiation and sacramentalism/sacerdotalism (the conference of grace through the sacraments as administered through the hands of ordained clergymen).
Have you actually read Luther? And I mean really Luther not what somebody says about him?
Now, what is the Sacrament of the Altar?
Answer: It is the true body and blood of our Lord Jesus Christ, in and under the bread and wine which we Christians are commanded by the Word of Christ to eat and to drink. 9] And as we have said of Baptism that it is not simple water, so here also we say the Sacrament is bread and wine, but not mere bread and wine, such as are ordinarily served at the table, but bread and wine comprehended in, and connected with, the Word of God. ...
Hence it is easy to reply to all manner of questions about which men are troubled at the present time, such as this one: Whether even a wicked priest can minister at, and dispense, the Sacrament, and whatever other
questions like this there may be. 16] For here we conclude and say: Even though a knave takes or distributes the Sacrament, he receives the true Sacrament, that is, the true body and blood of Christ, just as truly as he
who [receives or] administers it in the most worthy manner. For it is not founded upon the holiness of men, but upon the Word of God. And as no saint upon earth, yea, no angel in heaven, can make bread and wine to be
the body and blood of Christ, so also can no one change or alter it, even though it be misused.
Luther's Large Catechism - www.lcms.org
These are not the words of a man who believes in transubstantiation, nor the words of a man who believed that ordination makes the sacrament legit.
cowboymatt said:I just don't see it, especially since in every instance that I have taken Communion the elements have remained bread and wine (or juice). Jesus' language clearly (to me at least) is metaphorical and the reaction (or lack thereof) by the disciples supports this (surely, as Jews, they would have protested or at least been shocked enough to ask for an explanation).
Paul seems to understand Jesus language metaphorically (and perhaps Luke's language was influenced by Paul?), though 1 Cor 11.27 seems to say the opposite (could it be that Paul amped up his rhetoric here to make sure the the believers in Corinth were taking worship seriously?). And "sinning against the body and blood" doesn't have to be understood unmetaphorically.
I know that I'm not going to convince you, and I likely will stick with my tradition as well, but I do appreciate the give and take here!
Unlike the RCC who believes only the accidents of bread and wine remain we believe the bread and wine are still there but that because of Christ's promise his body and blood are also there.