Doubting Thomas
Active Member
Mike,
After comparing the specific differences in the Scriptures between the "Door" and "Vine" metaphors on one hand with the teaching regarding the bread/wine being the Body/Blood on the other I said this...
Christ, never said to the departing disciples: "Hang on, don't you know I'm just speaking metaphorically?" Nor does John make a comment that the remaining disciples understood Jesus to be speaking metaphorically. For example, Matthew mentions that after Jesus "corrected" their misunderstanding about what He meant by the "leaven of the Pharisees" that the disciples then understood that by "leaven" He was referring to their teachings. However, John doesn't make a similar comment about the bread discourse to the effect of, "and the disciples understood that by Christ's flesh and blood He was referring to His teachings" or the like. This would be odd if John had actually understood Christ to be speaking only metaphorically, because John had already written such an explanatory note when interpreting what Christ meant by "destroying this temple and raising it up in 3 days" in chapter 2 by saying that He was actually referring to His physical body (2:19-22)
Also, compare the John 6 discourse to the conversation with Nicodemus in John 3 regarding the new birth. After Christ told Nicodemus that one must be born again (v3), he responded by asking how an old man could enter a second time in his mother's womb and be born again (v4). Christ of course, corrected him by saying one must be born of water and the Spirit thus indicating he was speaking of a spiritual birth, and not a physical re-birth. (He of course did not say that "Most assuredly unless one enters his mothers womb a second time and is reborn from her, he cannot enter the kingdom of heaven").
Contrasting this with the "bread of life discourse, in John 6:51 Jesus said that the bread He was giving was His flesh that he was giving for the life of the world, and we know that that Christ was referring to His actual physical flesh which He was to give on the Cross (unless one wants to entertain Docetic notions about His "flesh"). The Jews responded, in a somewhat similar fashion to Nicodemus, by asking how Jesus could given them His flesh to eat (v52). Instead of answering by saying something like, "Assuredly you must spiritually consume My teachings and My truths to have My life in you", He became more emphatic by actually saying, "Most assuredly I say to you unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood you have no life in you (v 53)." Again, the flesh Christ is speaking of is His physical flesh which He was going to literally give for the life of the world. About this flesh Christ proceeded to say, "Whoever eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life" and "for My flesh is food indeed and My blood drink indeed" (v54-55). So although Christ had the opportunity to correct them there--if He really only was speaking metaphorically of some spiritual consumption of His teachings--He did not, and He allowed many of His disciples to walk away without any further explanation other than the caveat that the words He just told them had to be understood by the Spirit rather than carnally (ie only thinking in terms of gross cannibalism). The faithful disciples, who knew He had the words of life, finally learned the fulfillment of these particular words at the Last Supper when Christ identified an actual physical drink (the wine) with His blood and an actual physical food (the bread) with His body right before they were then instructed to physically drink and eat of the same.
I had then said this regarding the belief and practice of the early Christians:
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After comparing the specific differences in the Scriptures between the "Door" and "Vine" metaphors on one hand with the teaching regarding the bread/wine being the Body/Blood on the other I said this...
You repliedDT said:"So, Mike, I hope when you look at all the relevent Scriptures you can see the difference between the "door" and "vine" metaphors on the one hand, and the identification of the bread and wine with the body and blood on the other."
The only "correction" Christ gave was the caveat that the words He was speaking were "spirit" (ie spiritual) and not of carnal understanding. That's what He meant by juxtiposing "spirit" and "flesh" in this verse (which is indeed the case through out most of the NT). In other words, "spirit" doesn't mean "metaphor" nor does "flesh" equal "physicality" in this verse. Obviously, Christ didn't mean that HIS physical "flesh" profited nothing since He had just said that He was about to give it for the life of the world...which of course He literally did on the cross. It was this flesh that He said was "food indeed" and that we must eat, along with His blood being drink indeed.D28guy said:Jesus Christ corrected His followers when they mistakenly thought they were to physically eat Jesus in order to have everlasting life, grow as christians, or anything else they might have thought.
As soon as they got that wrong idea, Christ told them...
Quote:
"It is the Spirit who gives life, the flesh profits nothing. The words that I speak to you are spirit, and they are life."
Christ, never said to the departing disciples: "Hang on, don't you know I'm just speaking metaphorically?" Nor does John make a comment that the remaining disciples understood Jesus to be speaking metaphorically. For example, Matthew mentions that after Jesus "corrected" their misunderstanding about what He meant by the "leaven of the Pharisees" that the disciples then understood that by "leaven" He was referring to their teachings. However, John doesn't make a similar comment about the bread discourse to the effect of, "and the disciples understood that by Christ's flesh and blood He was referring to His teachings" or the like. This would be odd if John had actually understood Christ to be speaking only metaphorically, because John had already written such an explanatory note when interpreting what Christ meant by "destroying this temple and raising it up in 3 days" in chapter 2 by saying that He was actually referring to His physical body (2:19-22)
Also, compare the John 6 discourse to the conversation with Nicodemus in John 3 regarding the new birth. After Christ told Nicodemus that one must be born again (v3), he responded by asking how an old man could enter a second time in his mother's womb and be born again (v4). Christ of course, corrected him by saying one must be born of water and the Spirit thus indicating he was speaking of a spiritual birth, and not a physical re-birth. (He of course did not say that "Most assuredly unless one enters his mothers womb a second time and is reborn from her, he cannot enter the kingdom of heaven").
Contrasting this with the "bread of life discourse, in John 6:51 Jesus said that the bread He was giving was His flesh that he was giving for the life of the world, and we know that that Christ was referring to His actual physical flesh which He was to give on the Cross (unless one wants to entertain Docetic notions about His "flesh"). The Jews responded, in a somewhat similar fashion to Nicodemus, by asking how Jesus could given them His flesh to eat (v52). Instead of answering by saying something like, "Assuredly you must spiritually consume My teachings and My truths to have My life in you", He became more emphatic by actually saying, "Most assuredly I say to you unless you eat the flesh of the Son of Man and drink His blood you have no life in you (v 53)." Again, the flesh Christ is speaking of is His physical flesh which He was going to literally give for the life of the world. About this flesh Christ proceeded to say, "Whoever eats My flesh and drinks My blood has eternal life" and "for My flesh is food indeed and My blood drink indeed" (v54-55). So although Christ had the opportunity to correct them there--if He really only was speaking metaphorically of some spiritual consumption of His teachings--He did not, and He allowed many of His disciples to walk away without any further explanation other than the caveat that the words He just told them had to be understood by the Spirit rather than carnally (ie only thinking in terms of gross cannibalism). The faithful disciples, who knew He had the words of life, finally learned the fulfillment of these particular words at the Last Supper when Christ identified an actual physical drink (the wine) with His blood and an actual physical food (the bread) with His body right before they were then instructed to physically drink and eat of the same.
I had then said this regarding the belief and practice of the early Christians:
You responded by saying this...DT said:"It's also helpful to recall that none of the early Christians thought Christ was referring to a literal wooden door or a literal growing vine, nor were there ever any ordinances practiced in the early Church involving walking through literal wooden doors or attaching oneself to a literal plant. On the other hand, when the early Christians physically partook of the literal empirical bread and literal empirical wine in Holy Communion, they believed they were actually also supernaturally partaking of the body and blood of Christ--body and blood He had given for the life of the world on Calvary."
I don't see how it's "irrelevant" given the fact that they were a lot closer in time to the apostles than us, and that they also were the ones who came to a common agreement as to the exact contents of the scriptural Canon in the first place.D28guy said:It might sometimes be interesting to read church history, and what the early believers taught and believed. But it ie 100% irrelavent regarding doctrinal conclusions and scriptural learning. Totally irrelavent.
And these deceivers were the heretics such as the Judaizers, the Gnostics, the Docetists, the adoptionists, the Marcionites (etc) against whom the early Christians were diligent to combat.D28guy said:The scriptures tell us that even as the epistles were being circulated decievers were propagating false teaching, idolatries, and destructive doctrines.
It's not a matter of "anything that came along decades later" being "absolutely true". It's a matter of a consensus of early Christian belief and practice regarding a specific issue giving one pause before automatically assuming the absolute truth of his particular modern day scriptural interpretation on the same issue.D28guyIf that is the case...and it is...why would we conclude that [B said:anything[/b] that came along decades after that would somehow be absolutly true simply because christians were believeing it or practicing it?
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