mailmandan
Active Member
Your slanderous remarks are not helping your case.mailmandan doesn't know Greek or Hebrew, and so, doesn't read academic commentaries on specific biblical books.
Once again, from post #5: Hebrews 11:1 - Now faith is the assurance of things hoped for, the conviction of things not seen. Although faith results in multiple acts of obedience/works, faith is not defined as multiple acts of obedience/works. So faithfulness "in regards to accomplishing multiple acts of obedience/works" (as you imply) is not built into the essence of faith. Period. But rather, ongoing and persistent faith. Bottom line: works are not the essence of faith.Consequently, he simply refuses to recognize the objective fact that in both Hebrew ("amunah") and Greek ("pistis") the word for "faith" also means "faithfulness." Period.
4102. pistis pis'-tis from 3982; persuasion, i.e. credence; moral conviction (of religious truth, or the truthfulness of God or a religious teacher), especially reliance upon Christ for salvation; abstractly, constancy in such profession; by extension, the system of religious (Gospel) truth itself:--assurance, belief, believe, faith, fidelity. The word "amunah" which means firmness, steadfastness, fidelity also supports my argument and not your argument that erroneously attempts to "shoe horn" works "into" salvation through faith with the end result being salvation by faith + works. Works salvation is no salvation at all.
Romans 1:28 is not the only verse in the Bible that uses "adokimos" so there is nothing to escape, yet you simply give this word a "broad brushed definition" of "unsaved" based on one verse in order to accommodate your biased church doctrine. Disqualified (Greek adokimos, “not approved, not standing the test”) in the context of 1 Corinthians 9:27 means "disqualified for the prize" (NIV) and not disqualified from salvation, as I already explained to you in post #5.Nor can he escape the implication in Romans 1:28 that "adokimos" means both "disqualified" and "reprobate" and hence "unsaved."
It's not the same implication in 1 Corinthians 9:27 so there is nothing to duck. Works-salvationists are good at giving words a "broad brushed" application and do not sufficiently consider the context of how that word is used. The word "justified" for example in James 2:24 is interpreted by works-salvationists to mean that man is "saved" by works, yet James is not using the word "justified" to mean "accounted as righteous" but is shown to be righteous. James is discussing the evidence of faith (says-claims to have faith but has no works/I will show you my faith by my works - James 2:14-18) and not the initial act of being accounted as righteous with God (Romans 4:2-3). *You need to properly harmonize scripture with scripture before reaching your conclusion on doctrine.Nor can he duck the same implication for "adokimos" in 1 Cor. 9:27.
Absolutely false. In context, Paul is talking about being disqualified for the prize (NIV). What is the prize before Paul? Is it that reward of which he spoke in verse 1 Corinthians 9:18? In context, we see "reward, wreath, prize." Salvation is a gift, not a prize. A prize is something that you work for and earn where a gift is something that you freely accept without merit. Prize (brabeion) - the prize awarded to a victor, the reward (recognition) that follows triumph. That is not the same as a free gift (Romans 6:23; Ephesians 2:8). 1 Corinthians 3:14-15 mentions - If the work that anyone has built on the foundation survives, he will receive a reward. If anyone's work is burned up, he will suffer loss, (of reward) though he himself will be saved.No distinction is made in 9:23, 27 between reward and salvation.
Well that's one opinion. There are numerous other theologians who would disagree with that opinion. - 1 Corinthians 9:27 Commentary | Precept AustinThus, in his magisterial commentary on 1 Corinthians Hans Conzelmann speaks for the scholarly consensus when he says, "By behaving thus, Paul secures his own personal salvation (p. 161)."
In the context of the Greek games the idea of "disqualified" implies that there was a judge who made the assessment that the runner (boxer, etc) did not deserve either to compete or did not deserve the prize. The parallel of course is the great judgment by the Righteous Judge at the believer's bema seat at which time Paul might be deemed unworthy of receiving the prize.
The bema [word study] was the stand on which the judges stood to observe and evaluate the actions of athletes in the Olympic contests. If any athlete broke a rule, one or more of the judges (referees or umpires) would point to him and cry, “Adokimos!" (that is, “Disqualified!”). And thus he missed the prize (victor’s wreath -- see discussion of stephanos [word study]) regardless of the place he finished in the race or contest (see discussion of the necessity for athletes to compete according to the rules in 2Ti 2:5-note). Likewise, when an event was completed, the contestants stood before the bema to hear the judges’ announcement of the results, and to receive such reward as might properly be theirs. This is a uniquely fitting illustration to make clear to us the fact that service and life are to be evaluated by our Lord, with possible reward (cf Lk 16:2). The fear of the possibility happening at the end of his race, served as a strong negative motivator in Paul's life. - 1 Corinthians 9:27 Commentary | Precept Austin
James 2:14 is not about OSAS or maintaining salvation by works. As I already explained in post #3, In James 2:14, we read of one who says/claims *(key word)* he has faith but has no works (to validate his claim). That is not genuine faith, but a bare profession of faith. So when James asks, "Can that faith save him?" he is saying nothing against genuine faith, but only against an empty profession of faith/dead faith. *So James does not teach that we are saved "by" works. His concern is to show the reality of the faith professed by the individual (James 2:18) and demonstrate that the faith claimed (James 2:14) by the individual is genuine. Simple!Nor can mailmandan duck the scholarly consensus that James' rhetorical question, in 2:14 "If a man says he has faith but not works, can faith save him?" expects a resounding No that puts the final nail in the OSAS coffin.
Man is saved by grace through faith, not works. (Ephesians 2:8,9) You teach the opposite by trying to "sneak works into the back door of salvation through faith." Man is saved through faith and not by works (Ephesians 2:8,9; Titus 3:5; 2 Timothy 1:9); yet genuine faith is evidenced by works (James 2:14-26).Of course, "works" then are a necessary but not a sufficient condition for grace-based salvation and thus works manifest the faithfulness that makes faith true faith.
*Christ saves us through faith based on the merits of His finished work of redemption "alone" and not based on the merits of our works.*
It is through faith "in Christ alone" (and not by the merits of our works) that we are justified on account of Christ (Romans 3:24; 5:1; 5:9); yet the faith that justifies is never alone (unfruitful, barren) if it is genuine (James 2:14-26). *Perfect Harmony*
I'm not a Greek scholar, but I already have a sufficient understanding of the Greek to understand the truth here. Learn what it means to place faith in Jesus Christ for salvation/believe the gospel without trying to "add" works to the gospel.Learn Greek, my friend and you may learn correct doctrine.
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