One of the most controversial verses in scripture is 1 Corinthians 11:3. Here is a traditional translation by the NASB95:
1 Corinthians 11:3 " But I want you to understand that [fn]Christ is the head of every man, and the man is the head of a woman, and God is the head of [fn]Christ."
The footnotes indicate "Christ" refers to "the Messiah" (thus God incarnate).
I am certainly not suggesting that the above choice, which is reflected in every translation I looked at, is wrong. But, in considering alternate possibilities, I wanted others to tell me why the alternate is not viable.
Here is a possible (based on just substitution without regard for the nuances of Greek grammar) translation of the verse:
Yet - I am willing - you - be aware -
that - the - head - of every - person -
is - the - Christ -
so the - head - of woman,
the - man - Christ - the - God,
also - [is] - head.
This choice says the opposite of every other translation by very well qualified scholars. Is there something in the Greek that indicates the traditional choices?
1 Corinthians 11:3 " But I want you to understand that [fn]Christ is the head of every man, and the man is the head of a woman, and God is the head of [fn]Christ."
The footnotes indicate "Christ" refers to "the Messiah" (thus God incarnate).
I am certainly not suggesting that the above choice, which is reflected in every translation I looked at, is wrong. But, in considering alternate possibilities, I wanted others to tell me why the alternate is not viable.
Here is a possible (based on just substitution without regard for the nuances of Greek grammar) translation of the verse:
Yet - I am willing - you - be aware -
that - the - head - of every - person -
is - the - Christ -
so the - head - of woman,
the - man - Christ - the - God,
also - [is] - head.
This choice says the opposite of every other translation by very well qualified scholars. Is there something in the Greek that indicates the traditional choices?