I am nost unhappy with this quote, regardless of who actually made parts of it!!
Sorry. Can't let this pass, either.
And given that Paul, here quotes David (Ps:32:1-2), and cites what Scripture says about Abraham (Gen. 15:6), to show that God imputes our faith, apart from any 'works,' I suggest whoever actually said this, (for I cannot tell for sure with whom this originated, in the convoluted post with three sets of quotes) should seriously consider 'recanting' this last two sentences, starting with "Yes it is.", in its entirety.
Further, I suggest the real "false and ungodly teacher" here, is one who refuses to accept this Biblical declaration, in Rom. 4, that God does impute to us this righteousness, apart from any works we do, and James does not 'contravene' this statement, about Abraham, either, but James is telling us that Abraham "fulfilled" this previous Scriptural declaration, in showing his faith before man, by the offering of Isaac, which event transpired some 30 years after God had declared Abraham as righteous. (Gen. 15:6; 22:1-19; Rom. 4:1- 5:5; Gal. 3:1-9; Jas. 2:1-26)
And as it relates to this thread, does not Apollos speak to this, and James also ask -
Guess what! It was by lying, among other things, and you might wanna' sometime read all of Joshua chapters 2 and 6, Ps. 87:3-5, and then Matt. 1:5 to get all "The Rest of the Story." We've touched on the first parts, only.
The word of God never says anyplace that either David or Rahab "repented of (their) sins", or that Rahab "used to be a pr*stit#te", in any Scripture that I've read, regardless of your or my personal opinion.
It does say that David 'confessed' his sin, however, to get back into the proper 'fellowship' with God. {The relationship of David and God [just as the relationship of 'the two sons with the father,' whom Jesus knew, BTW (but chose not to identify), and spoke of in the account (It is not a parable.) found in Lk. 15:11-32] never changed, however the 'fellowship' of God anad David "sure took a beating."} (II Sam. 11:13; Ps. 51: esp. vs. 3-4)
Second, while I so not believe that David was "indwelt" with the Holy Spirit, as we are "indwelt" in the 'church age', he certainly "had" the Holy Spirit, else his asking God not take it from him, makes absolutely no sense. (Ps. 52:11) Not to even mention that Jesus specifically said David spoke by the Holy Spirit (Mk. 12:36), Apollos says the Holy Spirit 'spoke' "in David" (Heb. 3:7 cp. 4:7), and the Holy Spirit is said to be "upon" someone, well over 30 times in the OT, so I suggest these Scriptures are telling us that there was some way, that David "had" the Holy Spirit.
Finally, I noticed where Brother Bob twice mentioned 'not being there', in two instances; in one instance- regarding both Peter's hypocrisy at Antioch [yes, hypocrisy is exactly what word rendered in the KJV as "dissimulation" means, and the more than 300 scholars of the ESV, HCSB, NKJV, NIV, AMP, NCV, TNIV, NLT, MLB, and NASB, every scholar of which has most likely forgotten more about the Greek language in the last month than I will ever know in my entire life, all collectively render the words as "hypocrite" and "hypocrisy", not to mention the basic definition of Webster's, Strong's and Thayer's of "dissimulate" or the underlying Greek word is also "hypocrisy". (Incidentally, if Brother Bob is not caring about the definition 'apart from the Bible' how does he know that the word has only been around from the 15th century?? I've not even seen that, and I did look at hard copies for that info. And, considering the KJV did not even appear until the early 17th Century, something is not exactly adding up here, IMO.)], and in the second instance, as to when one book was written in relation to another. Well Peter and/or Paul were there, in both these instances, and Peter (and the Holy Spirit) had something to say, both about "being there", and Paul's writings. Peter defined (at least some of) Paul's Epistles AS Scripture; and also said that the Scriptures (the Word of Prophecy) were a better witness than even eyewitness testimony and he, an Apostle, WAS there. (II Pet. 1:16-21; 3:14-15)
I'm gonna' go along with Peter on this one!
And I'm also going to :sleeping_2:
Ed
Sorry. Can't let this pass, either.
Romans 4 says absolutely nothing about calling any "godly man" be it David or another, a false and ungodly teacher.Also remember that bearing false witness is just as great a sin as adultery in God's sight. Most who have seen your posts will attest to your failure in that area. If you have sinned in one area it is just as bad as sinning in them all.
Quote:
The option of calling a Godly man, such as David, a false and ungodly teacher is not there.
Yes it is. It is found in Romans 4.
And given that Paul, here quotes David (Ps:32:1-2), and cites what Scripture says about Abraham (Gen. 15:6), to show that God imputes our faith, apart from any 'works,' I suggest whoever actually said this, (for I cannot tell for sure with whom this originated, in the convoluted post with three sets of quotes) should seriously consider 'recanting' this last two sentences, starting with "Yes it is.", in its entirety.
Further, I suggest the real "false and ungodly teacher" here, is one who refuses to accept this Biblical declaration, in Rom. 4, that God does impute to us this righteousness, apart from any works we do, and James does not 'contravene' this statement, about Abraham, either, but James is telling us that Abraham "fulfilled" this previous Scriptural declaration, in showing his faith before man, by the offering of Isaac, which event transpired some 30 years after God had declared Abraham as righteous. (Gen. 15:6; 22:1-19; Rom. 4:1- 5:5; Gal. 3:1-9; Jas. 2:1-26)
And as it relates to this thread, does not Apollos speak to this, and James also ask -
Uh - How did Rahab get into the 'Hall of Fame of Faith', and be justified before man?31 By faith the harlot Rahab did not perish with those who did not believe, when she had received the spies with peace. (Heb. 11:31 - NKJV)
"Likewise, was not Rahab, the harl*t, 'justified by works' when she received the messengers and sent them out another way?" (Jas. 2:26 - NKJV)
Guess what! It was by lying, among other things, and you might wanna' sometime read all of Joshua chapters 2 and 6, Ps. 87:3-5, and then Matt. 1:5 to get all "The Rest of the Story." We've touched on the first parts, only.
Oh yeah, couple or three more itsy-bitsy, teeny-weeny, insignificant, minuscule, annoying, trivial things of no real importance, here - (Or so it appears that some think about the actual wording that Scripture uses, anyway.)3 So the king of Jericho sent to Rahab, saying, “Bring out the men who have come to you, who have entered your house, for they have come to search out all the country.”
4 Then the woman took the two men and hid them. So she said, “Yes, the men came to me, but I did not know where they were from. 5 And it happened as the gate was being shut, when it was dark, that the men went out. Where the men went I do not know; pursue them quickly, for you may overtake them.” 6 (But she had brought them up to the roof and hidden them with the stalks of flax, which she had laid in order on the roof.) (Josh, 2:3-6 cp. 6:17, 23, 25 - NKJV)
The word of God never says anyplace that either David or Rahab "repented of (their) sins", or that Rahab "used to be a pr*stit#te", in any Scripture that I've read, regardless of your or my personal opinion.
It does say that David 'confessed' his sin, however, to get back into the proper 'fellowship' with God. {The relationship of David and God [just as the relationship of 'the two sons with the father,' whom Jesus knew, BTW (but chose not to identify), and spoke of in the account (It is not a parable.) found in Lk. 15:11-32] never changed, however the 'fellowship' of God anad David "sure took a beating."} (II Sam. 11:13; Ps. 51: esp. vs. 3-4)
Second, while I so not believe that David was "indwelt" with the Holy Spirit, as we are "indwelt" in the 'church age', he certainly "had" the Holy Spirit, else his asking God not take it from him, makes absolutely no sense. (Ps. 52:11) Not to even mention that Jesus specifically said David spoke by the Holy Spirit (Mk. 12:36), Apollos says the Holy Spirit 'spoke' "in David" (Heb. 3:7 cp. 4:7), and the Holy Spirit is said to be "upon" someone, well over 30 times in the OT, so I suggest these Scriptures are telling us that there was some way, that David "had" the Holy Spirit.
Finally, I noticed where Brother Bob twice mentioned 'not being there', in two instances; in one instance- regarding both Peter's hypocrisy at Antioch [yes, hypocrisy is exactly what word rendered in the KJV as "dissimulation" means, and the more than 300 scholars of the ESV, HCSB, NKJV, NIV, AMP, NCV, TNIV, NLT, MLB, and NASB, every scholar of which has most likely forgotten more about the Greek language in the last month than I will ever know in my entire life, all collectively render the words as "hypocrite" and "hypocrisy", not to mention the basic definition of Webster's, Strong's and Thayer's of "dissimulate" or the underlying Greek word is also "hypocrisy". (Incidentally, if Brother Bob is not caring about the definition 'apart from the Bible' how does he know that the word has only been around from the 15th century?? I've not even seen that, and I did look at hard copies for that info. And, considering the KJV did not even appear until the early 17th Century, something is not exactly adding up here, IMO.)], and in the second instance, as to when one book was written in relation to another. Well Peter and/or Paul were there, in both these instances, and Peter (and the Holy Spirit) had something to say, both about "being there", and Paul's writings. Peter defined (at least some of) Paul's Epistles AS Scripture; and also said that the Scriptures (the Word of Prophecy) were a better witness than even eyewitness testimony and he, an Apostle, WAS there. (II Pet. 1:16-21; 3:14-15)
I'm gonna' go along with Peter on this one!
And I'm also going to :sleeping_2:
Ed
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