Christology and Preterism

In the Incarnation, God the Son chose to become a Man forever, and His body will always be the same one that he was raised up in!

 

Jesus chose to "limit" Himself to being a Man, so when God became man, that was forever!

 

Neither.
The same way God did in the OT?
Its Hebraic prophetic idiom used by the prophets to foretell the downfall of nations and individuals by God in history. It is uniquely apocalyptic and hyperbolic in nature. So also Christ, being of this well-known prophetic tradition, used the same apocalyptic language to foretell the downfall of Israel at her greatest Day of the Lord judgment at AD 66-70 (e.g., compare Matthew 24:29-30 to Isaiah 13:10-11concerning Babylon and Ezekiel 32:7-8concerning Nebuchadnezzar and Egypt.)


It's prophetic language about judgement. Not literal physical coming.

 

Christ died once.

The return is NEVER pictured in prophecy as one meek or sneaking in, but with such force that groups are assigned to look for the dead bodies to put up flags, so that other groups can come along as burial teams.

It is impossible for Christ to separate from Himself, again. For He has ascended to the Father, and is worthy to open the scroll

John stated, “With that as a basis for thought, full preterism must then say, "Well, Christ came spiritually, but then His body in Heaven died at that time. Can you see how absurd this is?”

Absolutely.

 

This is not how we see it. Your making a question multiple choice with no right answer.

 

Well it is unfortunate that you cling to a view despite the abundant posts exposing it as faulty. But, that is the nature of the B.B.

John of Japan ask a very good and logical question concerning a key matter of the preterist view. It remained unanswered throughout the pages of posts.

The question concerns the union of Spirit and body.

Perhaps you will answer that basic question.

 

Thanks for the laugh. But actually after being on here I've actually grown in my belief in that "view"

I said neither. Is this multiple choice with no right answer? I said his coming in ad 70 was just prophect language about judgement on a nation.

Does Jesus praying to God if he is God deny the Trinity?

 

In the Olivet Discourse yes.

 

I answered your OP question on the first page, q.v. You don't accept my answer. That's your problem, not mine. You're not my professor. I've learnt from this discussion & my views may have been modified - but not changed. Jesus prophesied that he would come in the lifetime of the generation that rejected him. There would be clear signs of his coming in the clouds. All the tribes of the land would "see" the one they refused to see during his ministry. He specifically told his accusers:

Mat. 26:64 Jesus said to him, “It is as you said. Nevertheless, I say to you, hereafter you will see the Son of Man sitting at the right hand of the Power, and coming on the clouds of heaven.”​

He's quoting Daniel who prophesied his victory & ascension:

Dan. 7:13 “I was watching in the night visions,
And behold, One like the Son of Man,
Coming with the clouds of heaven!
He came to the Ancient of Days,
And they brought Him near before Him.
14 Then to Him was given dominion and glory and a kingdom,
That all peoples, nations, and languages should serve Him.
His dominion is an everlasting dominion,
Which shall not pass away,
And His kingdom the one
Which shall not be destroyed.​

Yes, they saw him by the signs of his coming in judgment. I'll quote a verse of a hymn I wrote:

3. Revelation 6, seal 6
Signs on earth and signs in heaven
Warn of wrath about to fall.
Where can rebels flee from judgement?
Turn, repent, on Jesus call!
Sinners try to hide from judgement;
Dens and caves and rocks and earth;
Call on rocks to hide from Jesus;
Christ the Lamb now come in wrath.​

The problem, John, is that we come to Scripture with a basic set of presuppositions which have a huge amount in common - fundamentals - together with interpretations which accept as supported by Scripture, but can be challenged. Eschatology is one that gives cause for serious arguments, mainly because interpretation is the issue, not the statements of Scripture.

We agree on the "hypostatic union" of Christ, perfect deity & perfect humanity, & no amount of "logic" can refute that belief.

I hope you are familiar with Lewis Carroll & his "Humpty Dumpty" linguistic discussion. It should be mandatory for all theology students..

Enjoy your glory.

I hope you're sitting safely

 

I dont see the "second coming" as happening in AD 70. We have different views on what the Second coming is.

Like I said, Im not a complete preterist, I have not read/learned enough to make any conclusions on revelation.

If Jesus shows up splits the mountain in two, and every one in the world sees him. Great!

I don't see the olivet discourse talking about this event either way, my only such argument, was Matthew 24, is talking about the destruction of the temple and nothing more.

I do want to hear more arguments on either side about the "second coming" and "Judgement day" from the Preterist side and the Historicist side, ( I know your side well enough 20 years believing it).

 

There are two types of prophetic statements used in Scriptures.

Those that would take place immediately, and those that were on a continuum.

• An example of an "immediate" would be like the flood of Noah. It took a century to be fulfilled, but it came in Noah's lifetime.

​

• An example of a "continuum" would be the promise of the Messiah given first in Eden. It took some 6000 years to be fulfilled.

​

One should not be confused between the two.

A single element that the continuum has the immediate doesn't is the additional information added to the initial prophecy as God appoints the "signs" that will be evident of the promise.

• Noah was given a prophecy, he preached with no effect, but no further "sign" was given.

​

• Throughout the Scriptures the "signs" of both the first and second advent are given. Each with more information and more specifics.

​

Therefore, the statements of Mark 13 is not to be taken as "immediate" but that of the continuum.

There is no reason to invent some limited timeline concerning the return of Christ having to occur within a certain generation.

The continuum shows that the prophecy will be fulfilled just as God said it, without regard to the demands of human timelines.

 

So there was a spiritual second coming AD 70. and another physical one yet to come then?

 

The manipulation of prophecy is nothing new.

Even the religious leaders knew the place and signs of the birth of the messiah. Yet, never showed up.

Seems I recall a parable about a wedding feast that talks about guests not showing up.

 

I'm not sure where you got that from.

 

Second Coming of whom?

You conveniently overlook "This Jesus" not "This Titus".

It can't be both.

It was not Titus the Roman general who was "taken up from you into heaven" but Jesus Christ the Son of God who will be returning visibly -
they were looking into the PHYSICAL sky with their PHYSICAL eyes (not mentioned in the Luke passage about the hen and chicks).

They/We LOOK with our PHYSICAL eyes not our imagination:

Revelation 1:7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.


HankD