Well if the ECFs viewed our Lord as suffering on the cross at the hands of Satan rather than of God, they were mistaken and that's an end of it. Isaiah 54:10. 'Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise Him. He has put Him to grief.' I don't know why we're even discussing it.
However, it's fair to say that not all the ECFs were in such error. Here is Gregory of Nazianzus.:
'As for my sake He was called a curse, who destroyed my curse and sin, who taketh away the sin of the world; and became a new Adam to take the place of the old, just so He makes my disobedience His own as Head of the whole body.. As long then as I am disobedient and rebellious, both by denial of God and by my passions, so long is Christ also called disobedient on my account.'
There is no mention of Satan here. Everything is focused on Christ (cf. John 10:17-18). Gregory's argument is that believers are united to Christ, the 'Head of the whole body,' and that our sin is thereby transferred to Him. - 'He makes my disobedience His own.' This is the reason, says Gregory, that Christ 'was called a curse .... and sin.' He took the sin of the world upon Himself and [by implication] suffered the curse of God upon sin 'for my sake.' He was not Himself a sinner, and was not cursed for His own sin, but for ours. Thus we can see, if only in embryo, Penal Substitution.
That verse does not prove the ECF's wrong. They did not believe it was contrary to God's will that he suffer under the powers of darkness (they believed it pleased God, it was God's will) because this is how Christ accomplished redemption.
Saying Christ makes our disobedience his own is not even close to Penal Theory in embryo.
I believe Jesus made my disobedience His own. I believe it was for my sake Christ became a curse. But I also believe the Penal Substitution Theory of Atonement a severe corruption of biblical Atonement.
@DaveXR650 , I am posting this part for you (in regards to what I was saying earlier about Penal Substitution theorists lifting clips of writings it is the Penal Substitution Theory). Here is the actual paragraph from which Martin just quoted....keeping the parts he removed-
Take, in the next place, the subjection by which you subject the Son to the Father. What, you say, is He not now subject, or must He, if He is God, be subject to God? You are fashioning your argument as if it concerned some robber, or some hostile deity. But look at it in this manner: that as for my sake He was called a curse, Who destroyed my curse; and sin, who takes away the sin of the world; and became a new Adam to take the place of the old, just so He makes my disobedience His own as Head of the whole body. As long then as I am disobedient and rebellious, both by denial of God and by my passions, so long Christ also is called disobedient on my account. But when all things shall be subdued unto Him on the one hand by acknowledgment of Him, and on the other by a reformation, then He Himself also will have fulfilled His submission, bringing me whom He has saved to God. For this, according to my view, is the subjection of Christ; namely, the fulfilling of the Father's Will. But as the Son subjects all to the Father, so does the Father to the Son; the One by His Work, the Other by His good pleasure, as we have already said. And thus He Who subjects presents to God that which he has subjected, making our condition His own. Of the same kind, it appears to me, is the expression, "My God, My God, why hast Thou forsaken Me?" It was not He who was forsaken either by the Father, or by His own Godhead, as some have thought, as if It were afraid of the Passion, and therefore withdrew Itself from Him in His Sufferings (for who compelled Him either to be born on earth at all, or to be lifted up on the Cross?) But as I said, He was in His own Person representing us. For we were the forsaken and despised before, but now by the Sufferings of Him Who could not suffer, we were taken up and saved. Similarly, He makes His own our folly and our transgressions; and says what follows in the Psalm, for it is very evident that the Twenty-first Psalm refers to Christ.
Do you see what I mean?
@Martin Marprelate took a quote and removed it from its own context. That is the ONLY way people are able to claim the Penal Substitution Theory of Atonement existed prior to the 16th Century.