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He was sanctified FOR His special assignment on earth. Call it consecration. He was sanctified FROM every other being.What was Jesus sanctified from?
God bless.
Other implications are made by forcing the meaning Jesus is sanctified. He wasn't always holy and that Jesus Christ is a sinner and he wasn't always God.
Correct. So we have to understand what is meant when Scripture tells us that He was sanctified by God and sent into the world, and that He "sanctified Himself."
It has nothing to do with "being made holy" in the sense that He was unholy prior to that. Second, we don't necessarily impose a view that we, because we are sanctified, are Holy as He was.
Confusing this will allow one to impose something into Hebrews 10:28-29 that isn't there.
God bless.
He was sanctified FOR His special assignment on earth. Call it consecration. He was sanctified FROM every other being.
Here,
John 10:36 (KJV)
Say ye of him, whom the Father hath sanctified, and sent into the world, Thou blasphemest; because I said, I am the Son of God?
So, @Darrell C,every usage of Sanctify in John is all about assignment. Jesus is consecrated from all beings for His assignment, he sanctifies the disciple for their assignment.
So, @Darrell C,every usage of Sanctify in John is all about assignment. Jesus is consecrated from all beings for His assignment, he sanctifies the disciple for their assignment.
You on the other hand insist he was set apart FROM sacrifices of the Law BY His blood.
The blood was the causative. But EVERY instance of the blood is in view of its cleansing power, it sanctifies me, makes me holy to borrow your definition. The blood has one purpose; washing a sinner.
The subject of 'Sanctified by the blood of the covenant' can't possibly refer to angels or demons or cherubims or animals. ONLY men are meant. Jesus needed not his own blood for nothing; it was shed for men. You make Jesus a beneficiary of His sacrifice
@Darrell C, I can see the care with which you avoid the part that says he was sanctified by the blood of the covenant.
I understand you dilemma. Either you stick with a nonsensical interpretation or your theology falls apart.
Jesus was sanctified, Israel sanctified themselves two days, the husband is sanctified....but who was sanctified by the blood of the covenant? You @Darrell C or Christ?
Or was it both of you who badly needed the blood for sanctification?
@Darrell C, you are desperate. I wrote sanctified a few words before consecrated. Have you ever suffered from dyslexia?Why call it consecration? Why not leave the same word, sanctified...in it's proper place?
I can see you are busy googling and consulting. You just threw this up days after. The way of the transgressors is HARD!He was consecrated, and again we see the unending result of His being consecrated:
Hebrews 10:20
King James Version (KJV)
20 By a new and living way, which he hath consecrated for us, through the veil, that is to say, his flesh;
More nonsense. Jesus is set apart from incomplete sacrifices by his sacrifice.And again, that Sacrifice is set apart from the ongoing and continuing and incomplete sacrifices of the Law.
TrueIt means no other sacrifice will ever be needed or accepted.
Weed is defined as a plant growing where it is not supposed to be. You are busy explaining something nobody has disputed while ignoring the subject."His flesh" refers to His Death. The "new and living way" is the contrast. "The "veil" stands in contrast to the veil of the Tabernacle/Temple, which men went through into the presence of God. At that time that was their only avenue of approach. What this is saying is that man's entrance to God is through the death/Sacrifice of Christ. which was made possible by God manifesting in flesh.
Defend your claimsBut, you are correct here in the underlying implication, He was set apart for "His assignment" (which was not really an assignment, because He chose of His Own Self to manifest in flesh, rather than an idea that He was given this task by Another (and the Father would be in view)). You are also correct to say that He was "set apart from every other being."
In my very first post ere before you posted nothing, I said as much, I'm just repeating because you pretend not to seeIf you back up in the threads I already posted this in order to bring your attention to the meaning of the sanctification in view.
Not if we said Christ is sanctified in Hebrews 10:29, but rather if we say Christ is sanctified by the blood of the covenantRemember that you had the idea that if we say Christ is sanctified in Hebrews 10:29, then this would imply He would be receiving the same benefit we do from the Sacrifice.
Are you in any way insinuating that the correct reading is , 'blood of the covenant which sanctifies', and not 'blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified'?The Sacrifice of Christ is that which is associated with the New Covenant that sanctifies. We do know that believers are sanctified, that is true, but Hebrews 10:29 is making a general statement, that those who are in view have counted the blood (the Sacrifice of Christ) which sanctifies as unholy.
I'm ignoring EVERYTHING else you say till you answer this.Unlike your understanding imposes into it "The Blood which sanctified those who count the Sacrifice of Christ unholy."
That is not in the text. Furthermore, it stands in direct conflict what what is in the text, which is the opposite of those who believe to the saving of the soul, which is they have rejected New Covenant elements. You impose into it that they at one time did not do these things.
Just as little brotherly advice, Vooks, learn how to use Strong's Online Concordance. This is the greatest tool available to us to understand Scripture.
Consider:
Hebrews 7:28
King James Version (KJV)
28 For the law maketh men high priests which have infirmity; but the word of the oath, which was since the law, maketh the Son, who is consecrated for evermore.
Look at the link. In view is...perfection/completion. This is a different word than that seen in the link in the previous quote dealing with consecration. And again, it is tied to His Sacrifice.
Here is a page where you can look at how many times the Writer uses this word. And when we also look at the variants used, we see that theme of perfection I have spoken to you about. As I said before, the first century audience, because they knew the language, would understand what the Writer was saying more clearly than someone reading a translation today. Most will see the translation of telos and it's variants and think of perfection in it's modern usage, which has nothing to do with what He is saying.
The primary point is that the Law and it's services were not perfect, were not...complete. Christ was made perfect as our Sacrifice, and through that Sacrifice. When we understand that, we understand what it means that He has been forevermore consecrated.
Now let's look at your statement again, and once more you impose your understanding into Scripture:
You completely miss what the Writer states.
Again you impose a "they" into it, and it is Christ in view. His Sacrifice. Not believers, not unbelievers, except through the fact that the Sacrifice of Christ does do this in regards to believers.
Hebrews 10:28-29
King James Version (KJV)
28 He that despised Moses' law died without mercy under two or three witnesses:
29 Of how much sorer punishment, suppose ye, shall he be thought worthy, who hath trodden under foot the Son of God, and hath counted the blood of the covenant, wherewith he was sanctified, an unholy thing, and hath done despite unto the Spirit of grace?
The first thing we understand is that Hebrews was addressed to Hebrews, first and foremost. It is not a general Epistle without that theme.
Secondly, we see the contrast between the Law and the New Covenant.
Third, in view are rejecters. A similar statement would be "If those who bootlegged moonshine were punished before prohibition, how much sorer do you think they were punished after prohibition?"
Fourth, "he" is an insertion of the translators. It isn't in the text.
Here is a link where you can look at the original language which is translated. Beside "He was sanctified" you will see "Parse." Look at the "Tense, Voice," and "Mood."
Christ is the subject.
I would render it translated like this: "And counted Covenant Blood which Sanctifies unholy.," or, "And counted Covenant Blood wherein lies sanctification unholy."
Continued...
It doesn't say "he was sanctified" at all.
And again we see why you are failing to grasp this passage as a whole: you do not allow the import of the surrounding text to help you balance what the Writer is saying.
As far as falling apart, I suggest you review your own posts and notice that before...you scoffed at the thought of Christ being sanctified. Now, you are beginning to see a broader understanding, and that is good. This will help you to better understand this passage, as well as the Book itself, as well as salvation in Christ itself.
Both. That is very clear in Scripture.
What do you think Christ means when He says "I sanctify Myself?"
Did He do that by coming into the world? No, that is already covered, because He was sanctified and sent into the World.
Did He do that by teaching truths?
No, Christ is set apart in one primary way...He died in the place of the sinner.
It is His death which "sanctifies" Him. That is what He is speaking about in John 17.
Here is an Old Testament passage speaking about God sanctifying Himself:
Ezekiel 38:17-23
King James Version (KJV)
17 Thus saith the Lord God; Art thou he of whom I have spoken in old time by my servants the prophets of Israel, which prophesied in those days many years that I would bring thee against them?
18 And it shall come to pass at the same time when Gog shall come against the land of Israel, saith the Lord God, that my fury shall come up in my face.
19 For in my jealousy and in the fire of my wrath have I spoken, Surely in that day there shall be a great shaking in the land of Israel;
20 So that the fishes of the sea, and the fowls of the heaven, and the beasts of the field, and all creeping things that creep upon the earth, and all the men that are upon the face of the earth, shall shake at my presence, and the mountains shall be thrown down, and the steep places shall fall, and every wall shall fall to the ground.
21 And I will call for a sword against him throughout all my mountains, saith the Lord God: every man's sword shall be against his brother.
22 And I will plead against him with pestilence and with blood; and I will rain upon him, and upon his bands, and upon the many people that are with him, an overflowing rain, and great hailstones, fire, and brimstone.
23 Thus will I magnify myself, and sanctify myself; and I will be known in the eyes of many nations, and they shall know that I am the Lord.
See the link, study the usage.
Again you impose an erroneous implication to me. Very important to you, not to see the truth, but vilify those who expose your doctrine, isn't it.
Put that aside, Vooks...study the text.
I don't think I have ever encountered an antagonist that so often says two things at the same time. But I can see you beginning to grasp a better understanding of sanctification, and guess what...
...we haven't even broached the issue of progressive and positional sanctification, lol.
But you need to get the basics down first, Vooks.
God bless.
You have turned the argument in another direction by claiming KJV mistranslated Hebrews 10:29. Let's dwell on that. What is the correct translation of this verse?
Is 'by which he was sanctified' wrong/weak translation?
I'm ignoring EVERYTHING else you say till you answer this.
BY WHICH HE WAS SANCTIFIED
This is a mistranslation?
You are already ignoring what I say, Vooks, so the threat means very little.
Again, it is not so much a translational issue as an interpretive issue. I have no problem with a translation of "By which He was sanctified," because ultimately the context says that, and the surrounding text drives this home many times.
If it is put "By which he was sanctified," then it is error, because the subject is Christ, not the rejecter/s.
You see it as "Shall he be thought worthy...who hath been sanctified" and forget that the Son of God is mentioned after reference to the rejecter.
But as I said, I gave a translation that I think best fits the context of Hebrews 9-11. Again, if we miss the theme of perfection we miss something that a first century audience would have understood, but 21st century English speakers do not.
God bless.
Hebrews 10
29How much severer punishment do you think he will deserve who has trampled under foot the Son of God, and has regarded as unclean the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified, and has insulted the Spirit of grace?
I understand the two-way here. Most people recognize "which he was sanctified" as sinner. The "H" of "HE" would have been capitalized for Jesus.
For example:
Hebrews 1
3And He is the radiance of His glory and the exact representation of His nature, and upholds all things by the word of His power. When He had made purification of sins, He sat down at the right hand of the Majesty on high,
Those translators for Hebrews I think would have been picky about it.
On the other side.
John 17
17“Sanctify them in the truth; Your word is truth. 18“As You sent Me into the world, I also have sent them into the world. 19“For their sakes I sanctify Myself, that they themselves also may be sanctified in truth.
Lets make "the blood of the covenant by which he was sanctified" to mean Jesus.
"The blood of the covenant by which Jesus was sanctified"
maybe we can change it further...
"The Cross by which Jesus was Sanctified"
26For if we go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth, there no longer remains a sacrifice for sins, 27but a terrifying expectation of judgment and THE FURY OF A FIRE WHICH WILL CONSUME THE ADVERSARIES. 28Anyone who has set aside the Law of Moses dies without mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses. 29How much severer punishment do you think he will deserve who has trampled under foot the Son of God, and has regarded as unclean The Cross by which Jesus was Sanctified, and has insulted the Spirit of grace?
For if WE go on sinning willfully after receiving the knowledge of the truth.
It doesn't say IF THEY go on sinning AFTER REJECTING the knowledge of the truth.
It doesn't say IF THEY go on sinning AFTER REJECTING the knowledge of the truth.
He is talking to believers, his own congregation. And he is talking about a terrible judgment: a terrifying expectation of judgment and THE FURY OF A FIRE WHICH WILL CONSUME THE ADVERSARIES.
Then he explains how bad it is. All this is to describe how bad a punishment this is:
Anyone who has set aside the Law of Moses dies without mercy on the testimony of two or three witnesses.
Even forcing the change of this bible passage, This is describing the above "FURY of FIRE":
29How much severer punishment do you think he will deserve who has trampled under foot the Son of God, and has regarded as unclean The Cross by which Jesus was Sanctified, and has insulted the Spirit of grace?
Even if we cut this passage OUT without context and left it forcing Jesus in,
There is still a element of one mistakenly regarding unclean which he was intended not to.
The only reason anything can be a sin is because you are against God's intention for you. Somewhere a command intended to be followed is disobeyed. The spirit of grace has been insulted.
It would be like if I were upset because some rock outside didn't say good morning.
Yes you can fall, You get warned repeatedly.
Hebrews 4
1Let us therefore fear, lest, a promise being left us of entering into his rest, any of you should seem to come short of it.
11Let us labour therefore to enter into that rest, lest any man fall after the same example of unbelief.
Even if you just pin this as a warning to unbelievers, you got this new issue of unbelievers LABOURING and Working towards that rest.
Even if you just pin this as a warning to unbelievers, you got this new issue of unbelievers LABOURING and Working towards that rest.
Not much time so just going to address this portion for now, where you are not really understanding the statement you just presented.
You say...
...so let me share with you the fundamental error of your reasoning: they are not laboring to enter into that Rest if they have already entered into it, which is exactly what he says here...
Hebrews 4
King James Version (KJV)
1 Let us therefore fear, lest, a promise being left us of entering into his rest, any of you should seem to come short of it.
2 For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them: but the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it.
3 For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world.
The warning is to a Hebrew audience, not a Christian one. Certainly the Epistle is meant to be circulated among believers, but, the writer is warning here of unbelief in those who are associated with the believers.
Here he says "we who have believed do enter into rest." The contrast is made with National Israel in the Wilderness, and he just spent an entire chapter (Ch.3) warning those of the current day (those he writes to) not to be unbelievers as they were in the Provocation (Rebellion).
You can back up to see this:
Hebrews 3:12; 16-19
King James Version (KJV)
12 Take heed, brethren, lest there be in any of you an evil heart of unbelief, in departing from the living God.
16 For some, when they had heard, did provoke: howbeit not all that came out of Egypt by Moses.
17 But with whom was he grieved forty years? was it not with them that had sinned, whose carcases fell in the wilderness?
18 And to whom sware he that they should not enter into his rest, but to them that believed not?
19 So we see that they could not enter in because of unbelief.
Now, we continue this into the next Chapter:
Hebrews 4
King James Version (KJV)
1 Let us therefore fear, lest, a promise being left us of entering into his rest, any of you should seem to come short of it.
In other words, "They did not enter into rest (which you have to remember was a temporal rest, the Land), let us (this modern generation of Hebrew People) therefore (remember this is a key word directing us back to a previous statement) fear not entering into Rest because you come short of it (do not reach that rest as the example of Chapter 3 shows they did not)."
And why did they not enter into rest? Unbelief.
That is the same warning he is giving to his Hebrew audience.
Your doctrinal position imposes a maintaining of a "faithful walk," which is not in the text. In view is unbelief, and you can't make unbelievers those who lose their salvation. Fall away? Yes. But we do not ascribe a saving experience to those who are apostate.
Now notice what he says next:
2 For unto us was the gospel preached, as well as unto them: but the word preached did not profit them, not being mixed with faith in them that heard it.
Unto us (modern audience) was preached the Gospel (which is the revealed will of God, we do not see the Revelation of the Mystery of Christ given to the Children of Israel in the Wilderness)...just like it was to them (the Children of Israel who fell in the Wilderness).
But what was lacking, Utilyan?
Faith.
They did not have faith in the revealed will of God.
Now notice his statement, which nullifies your doctrine:
3 For we which have believed do enter into rest, as he said, As I have sworn in my wrath, if they shall enter into my rest: although the works were finished from the foundation of the world.
Those who have believed...do enter the Rest of Christ.
The reason for not entering is...unbelief.
So we see again that those clearly described as unbelievers are ascribed a condition which the very text has just told you they did not have. They are not believers, they are being warned not be unbelieving, as those who fell in the Wilderness were.
The warning is to an Hebrew audience who are told "Don't make the same mistake they did."
God bless.
Not making the same mistakes is a good work.
Rather "sola fide" version of Hebrews would not give a warning to unbelievers at all.
Because since there is nothing they can do to be justified, and you won't justify them you would then walk the walk.
Actually trust Jesus to handle THEM.
1 Timothy 4
10For it is for this we labor and strive, because we have fixed our hope on the living God, who is the Savior of all men, especially of believers.
Now you might love women especially your Mama. That doesn't mean you only love your Mama.
16Pay close attention to yourself and to your teaching; persevere in these things, for as you do this you will ensure salvation both for yourself and for those who hear you.
The "sola fide" version there is no doing any of this.
I don't require paying close attention, I don't require persevering, I most definitely can't and dare not attempt to ensure salvation. Since it can't be on me.
Imagine one walks up to us and asks "what must I do to inherit eternal life?"
Matthew 19
16Just then a man came up to Jesus and asked, “Teacher, what good thing must I do to get eternal life?”
17“Why do you ask me about what is good?” Jesus replied. “There is only One who is good. If you want to enter life, keep the commandments.”
Do you have a better reply then Christ?
Because I plan answering exactly as Christ.
V35-36 (KJV) Cast not away therefore your confidence, which hath great recompence of reward. 36 For ye have need of patience, that, after ye have done the will of God, ye might receive the promise.
V35. Note the exhortation is not to gain confidence(believing and being converted) but to keep the confidence they already possess. This means the Writer believes their faith to be genuine. This faith had been tested/proven by a former bout of persecution,but they should not live in the past. Instead,they must continue to press on amidst present adversities to gain the promise of salvation.The genuineness of their faith is never questioned, it's all about if it will last, and this is the main theme of the epistle.