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Defending Biblical Dispensational Teaching. What Are Your Questions

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JD731

Well-Known Member
Please clarify. Are you saying there were no children of God among the Gentiles prior to AD 40?

You write a lot like @John of Japan. You're not him are you?
There were no gentile children of God before the conversion of Cornelius and his household. This is when God by his grace made the sacrifice of Jesus Christ efficacious to the world and sent his Jewish preachers out with the gospel of God, which is the theme of the 13 letters of the apostle Paul to the gentiles and is summarized in this statement here.

Rom 15:24 The grace of our Lord Jesus Christ be with you all. Amen.
25 Now to him that is of power to stablish you according to my gospel, and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery, which was kept secret since the world began,
26 But now is made manifest, and by the scriptures of the prophets, according to the commandment of the everlasting God, made known to all nations for the obedience of faith:
27 To God only wise, be glory through Jesus Christ for ever.

Paul's "my gospel" is the gospel of God.

Rom 1:1 Paul, a servant of Jesus Christ, called to be an apostle, separated unto the gospel of God,

How do you think a sinner becomes a son of God? It is not just a title, you know.

I am not John of Japan.
 

canadyjd

Well-Known Member
Read carefully. Jesus came to fulfill the law and the prophets, he said, he did not say he fulfilled them…….

If I were prone to not be able to perceive it, I would be checking up to see if I were born again.

Dispensational theology is the only thing that makes sense.
So, you said earlier Jesus fulfilled the law. Now you say He did not fulfill the law. You are saying Jesus failed in His stated purpose to fulfill the law and the prophets.

We will disagree.

You continue to ignore the Ephesians passage. I understand it destroys dispensational theory of a separate future for Israel. Instead of changing your belief to conform to scripture, you ignore scripture and cling to your unbiblical beliefs.

You then have the arrogance to suggest I need to closely examine my own salvation because I’m not “prone to perceive” your beliefs as truth.

You have failed in your stated attempt to defend dispensation theology. You have failed to address and answer clear questions concerning scripture and how it undermines your beliefs but instead question the salvation of those that disagree.

Therefore, I believe all has been said at this point.

thanks for the conversation

peace to you
 

George Antonios

Well-Known Member
Please

tell us what are the dispensations?

Name them?

Tell us their differences?

TIA

Job_8:8 For enquire, I pray thee, of the former age, and prepare thyself to the search of their fathers:

Accordingly, let's begin, lightly. Do you only eat herbs (Gen.1:29)? Are you seeking eternal life from a literal tree in a literal garden (Gen.3:22)?
 

George Antonios

Well-Known Member
The is no “age” after the “church age.”

Eph 2:6 And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus:
Eph 2:7 That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus.

Nor can this be restricted to simply "eternity" for Paul says concerning the legal ordinances of Moses' law that they are yet to return:
Col 2:16 Let no man therefore judge you in meat, or in drink, or in respect of an holyday, or of the new moon, or of the sabbath days:
Col 2:17 Which ARE a shadow of things to come; but the body is of Christ.

In line with Ezekiel and Zechariah's prophecies.
 

Marooncat79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Saved Jews and Gentiles of the church age are one body, yes.
Saved Jews and Gentiles from other ages are not.
The one-body doctrine is only true for Jewish and Gentile believers of the church age.


Why do we refer to them as OT Saints?

are OT Saints and NT Saints both referred to as a “royal priesthood and a holy nation”?

are both saved by faith alone?

Do both worship the same God?

Even though OT did not fully understand not trusted in the Redeemer -Christ. Yes or no?
 

George Antonios

Well-Known Member
Why do we refer to them as OT Saints?

are OT Saints and NT Saints both referred to as a “royal priesthood and a holy nation”?

are both saved by faith alone?

Do both worship the same God?

Even though OT did not fully understand not trusted in the Redeemer -Christ. Yes or no?

Israel:
Exo_19:6 And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.

The Church:
1Pe 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:

One Levitical, the other Melchizedekian.

twoedged sword the Bible is.
 

Marooncat79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Of course law-age Jews were not saved by faith alone, as we are. That's black-on-white clear from Moses and Paul.

Gal_3:12 And the law is NOT of faith: BUT, The man that DOETH them shall live in them.



Well sure, as do the angels, but they're not the church.

There you have it ladies and gents!!

You really need to read Paul’s letter to the Romans and Galatians!!

Paul says Abraham believed God and it was counted to him as righteousness.

I always knew you did not believe it sola fide
 

Marooncat79

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Israel:
Exo_19:6 And ye shall be unto me a kingdom of priests, and an holy nation. These are the words which thou shalt speak unto the children of Israel.

The Church:
1Pe 2:9 But ye are a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:

One Levitical, the other Melchizedekian.

twoedged sword the Bible is.
Completely wrong sir
 

MB

Well-Known Member
The Spirit, through the apostles, made no bones about convicting her for murdering her husband, Yahweh in the flesh, Christ the King:

7 How much soever she glorified herself, and waxed wanton, so much give her of torment and mourning: for she saith in her heart, I sit a queen, and am no widow, and shall in no wise see mourning. Rev 18

...but indeed she IS no queen, and she IS a widow, and she HAS seen great misery over the centuries...
It was the Romans that crucified Christ. neither the Jews nor the Romans Killed Christ. Christ laid down His life as a sacrifice Jesus even said no man takes His life. That He laid it down and that He would take it up again. Sure the Jews wanted Him crucified but they didn't do it the Romans did that.
MB
 

canadyjd

Well-Known Member
Read carefully. Jesus came to fulfill the law and the prophets, he said, he did not say he fulfilled them. Fulfilling the law and the prophets demanded that Israel repent and receive him as the promised Messiah and king of Israel, which they refused to do……

Dispensational theology is the only thing that makes sense.
Utter nonsense. Many prophecies foretold the Jews rejecting their Messiah and killing Him.

For you to make that statement proves two things.

1: You are stunningly ignorant of prophecy concerning Jesus.

2: You read your unbiblical theology into ever passage, instead of letting the passage speak in context.

The only way dispensational theology can make sense is if you ignore all passages that disprove it, read it into ever other passage, then question the salvation of any who disagrees.

peace to you
 
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