Does it really deal with trying to preserve back over things such Hebrew Poetry and Idioms, so can keep as much of their flavor as possible?Yep.
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Does it really deal with trying to preserve back over things such Hebrew Poetry and Idioms, so can keep as much of their flavor as possible?Yep.
IMO, yes, but you are once more getting away from the OP, which is about definitions. Thank you in advance for your cooperation.Does it really deal with trying to preserve back over things such Hebrew Poetry and Idioms, so can keep as much of their flavor as possible?
The basic definition of a formal translation would include under that definition the ones used by Nkjv and Esv , correct?IMO, yes, but you are once more getting away from the OP, which is about definitions. Thank you in advance for your cooperation.
I don't like the term "formal equivalence," which was invented by Nida and refers to the grammatical form as being more emphasized than the meaning.The basic definition of a formal translation would include under that definition the ones used by Nkjv and Esv , correct?
I use formal as another way to say a literal translation...I don't like the term "formal equivalence," which was invented by Nida and refers to the grammatical form as being more emphasized than the meaning.
Again, here is the condescending quote from Nida I posted in Post #22:
“formal correspondence: quality of a translation in which the features of the form of the source text have been mechanically reproduced in the receptor language. Typically, formal correspondence distorts the grammatical and stylistic patterns of the receptor language, and hence distorts the message, so as to cause the receptor to misunderstand or to labor unduly hard.”
Eugene Nida and Charles Taber, The Theory and Practice of Translation, p. 201.
They don't mean the same thing.I use formal as another way to say a literal translation...
In my classroom they did!They don't mean the same thing.
Yeah, a lot of profs mix the terms up. They follow Nida's terminology without knowing what he meant.In my classroom they did!
Formal and dynamic were the main terms being used....Yeah, a lot of profs mix the terms up. They follow Nida's terminology without knowing what he meant.
Both of those are Nida terms. "Thought for thought" and "word for word" are the old terms, going back many hundreds of years. Translators also used the terms "literal" and "free." Anyone who only says "formal" and "dynamic" or "functional equivalent" has surrendered to Nida.Formal and dynamic were the main terms being used....
A lot of New Testament scholars have had no such hesitation about using Nida's terms; both Liberal and Conservative ones.Both of those are Nida terms. "Thought for thought" and "word for word" are the old terms, going back many hundreds of years. Translators also used the terms "literal" and "free." Anyone who only says "formal" and "dynamic" or "functional equivalent" has surrendered to Nida.
Secular translation scholars almost never use these terms except when talking about Nida's theories, unless they are disciples of Nida, and there are very few of those in secular translation. I have a dozen or more books by secular scholars, and none of them--not a single one--uses Nida's terminology except when discussing Nida's theory.
And that is surprising to me. I didn't have to do a whole lot of reading of Nida to figure out what his terms meant. The truth is, most who comment on DE only read one or two of his books and think they've got it. (How many Nida books have you read?) The ones who read extensively are his disciples, like Mildred Larson, who has 18 of his works in the bibliography of Meaning-Based Translation.A lot of New Testament scholars have had no such hesitation about using Nida's terms; both Liberal and Conservative ones.
I said New Testament Bible scholars, both Liberal as well as Conservative use the terms functional equivalence and dynamic equivalence. For the moment I am not speaking of anyone else. If you are well-read on the subject, why are you surprised that these scholars use those terms? Is it because you have primarily immersed yourself In Nida's works? I know you disagree with most of his material, but perhaps you have been concentrating too much on him. Even James Price uses those terms. Isn't that right?And that is surprising to me. I didn't have to do a whole lot of reading of Nida to figure out what his terms meant. The truth is, most who comment on DE only read one or two of his books and think they've got it.
Yes, I do concentrate on Nida and his followers. I don't see how anyone can intelligently critique someone's theories if they have not even read them. Have you read anything of Nida? I also read a lot of secular authors on translation, which I feel is important to reach a professional level.I said New Testament Bible scholars, both Liberal as well as Conservative use the terms functional equivalence and dynamic equivalence. For the moment I am not speaking of anyone else. If you are well-read on the subject, why are you surprised that these scholars use those terms? Is it because you have primarily immersed yourself In Nida's works? I know you disagree with most of his material, but perhaps you have been concentrating too much on him. Even James Price uses those terms. Isn't that right?
But earlier you said you were surprised that N.T. scholars have used Nida's terms. Which is it? At first reading your comments you showed surprise. As if it was some new knowledge you acquired. Now you admit you know that NT Bible scholars across the spectrum use Nida's terms.I've read many other scholars on Bible translation. I cringe every time I read one of them using Nida's terminology for work not following Nida's theories.
I was simply asking if James Price uses Nida's terms. I would think it is rather unavoidable for him not to.I have seen that Bibles International uses Nida's terms, but not that James Price does.His book A Theory for Bible Translation uses "target," not "receptor." Care to share where Price uses Nida's terms when not discussing DE?
I'm surprised now by this, and I've been surprised before. I'm still surprised. Don't know what your point is other than to hassle me.But earlier you said you were surprised that N.T. scholars have used Nida's terms. Which is it? At first reading your comments you showed surprise. As if it was some new knowledge you acquired. Now you admit you know that NT Bible scholars across the spectrum use Nida's terms.
He uses them when writing about Nida's theories.I was simply asking if James Price uses Nida's terms. I would think it is rather unavoidable for him not to.
Okey dokey.I've told you before that I have no Nida or Price books. I have read things on line from both. And, regarding Nida. all my Conservative by N.T. scholars books refer to Nida a great deal. They quote him extensively, and usually in affirming ways. Robert Thomas does not.
Like you or anyone else who likes to read a lot : The books I choose to read are my choices. We all have a finite time on this earth, and I have interests that may not be yours, though there may be overlaps. I'm content to read second-hand references to Nida. Once in a blue moon you may read 'about' John Calvin. I like to read his actual sermons, lectures and letters (though they are indeed translations).