Marcia
Active Member
...Also we have this verse..This verse is used by Catholics often to show how the Catholic Church is to view Mary. That the Apostle John is representative of the Church in this discource.
This take on this passage is eisegesis - reading into scripture something that is not there. There is no reason to think that Jesus' words to John are words to the church!! Or that John is representative of the church in this passage! Absolutely nothing in the text supports that. Catholics use it because they are reaching for straws in this debate on Mary.
This is true. The term "mother of God" came about as a result of attacks on the deity of Christ. This phrase never meant that Mary was the mother of God the Father but rather that she was the mother of Jesus, who is God....John Cassian who states that Mary had to be Theotokos because to say that she was Christokos lessened the divinity of Jesus. This argument was about Jesus' divinity!
I don't see how the debate on Mary comes into this at all. I do not think the Greek world has influenced Christianity any more than the authors were influenced by it, which is none. You should read Ronald Nash's The Gospel and the Greeks.How has our american world view shaped the Christian faith? Have we gone to the extent that the Greek world view did? And as I see emotional appeals and expensive entertainment that happens in worship service I wonder have we lost the essence of Jesus? His Jewishness. Will we recognize him when he returns or have we made an idol of him. This is how it bothers me on these levels
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