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was it something that he direct caused, or did He allow it to com to pass?
No. God became a man and gave Himself freely. No one took His life, He laid it down Himself.
John 10
17 “Therefore My Father loves Me, because I lay down My life that I may take it again. 18 No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down of Myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This command I have received from My Father.”
No. God became a man and gave Himself freely. No one took His life, He laid it down Himself.
John 10
17 “Therefore My Father loves Me, because I lay down My life that I may take it again. 18 No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down of Myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This command I have received from My Father.”
Oh, my! Amy and I are agreeing! :applause:
It was the Father's will for the Son to die on the cross, but it was the Son who actually laid down His life.
was it something that He directly caused, or did He allow it to come to pass?
Oh, my! Amy and I are agreeing! :applause:
It was the Father's will for the Son to die on the cross, but it was the Son who actually laid down His life.
No. God became a man and gave Himself freely. No one took His life, He laid it down Himself.
John 10
17 “Therefore My Father loves Me, because I lay down My life that I may take it again. 18 No one takes it from Me, but I lay it down of Myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This command I have received from My Father.”
When Jesus was being arrested Peter drew his sword and cut the ear off of the High Preist. To which Jesus said
Mat 26:53 Thinkest thou that I cannot now pray to my Father, and he shall presently give me more than twelve legions of angels?
Jesus went willingly to the cross, but this verse makes it obvious that God would have rescued Him if Jesus had just asked.
I don't know about you people, but I would rather give up my own life than to watch my son tortured and killed.
Noone knows the mind of God. Yes, it is obvious that he allowed the death of Jesus, but to say that He caused the death of His son is beyond human comprehension.
John
This question addresses the holiness of God in that some seem to believe that if they can biblically show that God actively brought about the crucifixion (an obviously great injustice) that somehow they have proven God has also actively brought about all evil (such as the molestation of children etc) in like manner.
The fault of this logic is two fold:
1) Proof that God does X doesn't prove that God does Y. In other words, proof that God has taken an active role is ensuring the crucifixion of Himself for the redemption of mankind in no way proves that God takes an active role in ensuring all evil in like manner.
2) Scripture is clear to show that the active role God does play in the crucifixion is not in violation of man's will. He uses judicial hardening to ensure the crucifixion, which if examined can be shown not to be a violation of human will or in any way a mark on His holy character. Judicial hardening is much like when a cop hides his presence from speeders to ensure they keep speeding when they pass. The cop doesn't need to make them want to speed, he simply hides the truth of his presence to ensure they will do exactly what they already want to do. That is all God does in the crucifixion. He simply hides the truth from Israel for a time so as to ensure they will not believe and will crucify Christ. After he is raised up he then draws all men to himself by sending the gospel to all people.
:thumbs::thumbs::thumbs::thumbs:
He gave His life, they did not take it.
I agree with point #1
#2. Is there a time frame in which this judicial hardening of Israel took place? was it the 33 years of Jesus' life, or simply the 3 years of his public ministry...even then, would there not have been some Israelites who died in unbelief who might have otherwise believed, except for this special hardening?
But what is being argued against in denying this is not if "they" took His life. Instead the OP is "Did GOD Kill His Son Upon the Tree?"
It's as if one is arguing "no way could God do that because God did it Himself!!!"
I agree with point #1
#2. Is there a time frame in which this judicial hardening of Israel took place? was it the 33 years of Jesus' life, or simply the 3 years of his public ministry...even then, would there not have been some Israelites who died in unbelief who might have otherwise believed, except for this special hardening?