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Did Jesus Really Die For Judas?

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Silverhair

Well-Known Member
First, you imagine it is clear and no doubt you think your idea is correct. Others show you that Jesus did not atone for Judas sin and you get all bent out of shape.
You cannot acknowledge that atonement means fully paid for. If Jesus fully paid for Judas sins then Judas was made perfect and holy by the blood of Christ. God would be casting a person, whose sins are fully paid for, into hell.
Do you teach that fully atoned persons are spending eternity in hell, even though God sees no sin due to the atoning sacrifice of Christ?

Your theological view is what is causing the problem for you. You think that just because Christ Jesus paid the debt it does not have to be accepted. If I offer a thirsty man a bottle of water they are still thirsty unless they accept it and drink it. The same for Gods' offer of salvation it is a gift that has to be accepted. God does not force anyone to be saved.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
Your theological view is what is causing the problem for you. You think that just because Christ Jesus paid the debt it does not have to be accepted. If I offer a thirsty man a bottle of water they are still thirsty unless they accept it and drink it. The same for Gods' offer of salvation it is a gift that has to be accepted. God does not force anyone to be saved.
Not an equal analogy. If someone pays my fine in my place it doesn't matter if I accept it or not, it is covered in full. I no longer have the penalty.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Salvation is not predicated on what we do...
It's predicated on what God does with rebellious and unrepentant sinners whose hearts He either changes, or does not.

Finally, for Judas to have repented, it would have had to been granted to him by the Lord through the new birth.
Being the son of perdition, he was not given that privilege by God.

That said, I've really no more to say to you on this subject...
but I do hope that you one day come to see that eternal life is a gift ( Romans 6:23 ) that is given because of the Lord's deciding to have favor on someone, and not because He "offered" it to us.

I must admit that your complete refusal to accept what the bible says as regards salvation is surprising since you say you have been a Christian for 43+ yrs. How can you ignore all the texts that say we are to believe in Christ Jesus for salvation. Are they not in your bible? For you to just pass those by shows a lack of regard for Gods' word.

Joh 3:18 "He who believes in Him is not condemned; but he who does not believe is condemned already, because he has not believed in the name of the only begotten Son of God.
Joh 3:36 He who believes in the Son has everlasting life; and he who does not believe the Son shall not see life, but the wrath of God abides on him."
Joh 6:29 Jesus answered and said to them, "This is the work of God, that you believe in Him whom He sent."
Rom 3:22 even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all who believe. For there is no difference;

In these verses "believe" is in the active voice which means that the person has to believe not that God believes for them. Salvation is a gift of God to those that believe. You should trust scripture not a theological view.
 

Silverhair

Well-Known Member
Not an equal analogy. If someone pays my fine in my place it doesn't matter if I accept it or not, it is covered in full. I no longer have the penalty.

Yes I would expect that you will deny what scripture says so you can hold on to your theological view. The bible shows the error of your view but you deny that so we reach an impasse.
 

Reformed1689

Well-Known Member
Yes I would expect that you will deny what scripture says so you can hold on to your theological view. The bible shows the error of your view but you deny that so we reach an impasse.
False accusation first of all. And no, the Bible does not show my view to be an error. But I love how you went for the ad hominem rather than address my post.
 

tyndale1946

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Okay but did he do that himself or did the Lord use him to those ends?

Romans 9:17 For the scripture saith unto Pharaoh, Even for this same purpose have I raised thee up, that I might shew my power in thee, and that my name might be declared throughout all the earth.

9:18 Therefore hath he mercy on whom he will have mercy, and whom he will he hardeneth.

Gods ways are not our ways neither are his thoughts our thoughts... Brother Glen:)

To the OP Judas is in Gods hands not ours!
 

AustinC

Well-Known Member
Your theological view is what is causing the problem for you. You think that just because Christ Jesus paid the debt it does not have to be accepted. If I offer a thirsty man a bottle of water they are still thirsty unless they accept it and drink it. The same for Gods' offer of salvation it is a gift that has to be accepted. God does not force anyone to be saved.
Nope.
I think that if all sin is fully paid for, that means all sin, including not repenting and not believing and the sin of not accepting.
All sins paid for without exception means...without any conditions.

So, are their conditional sins that Jesus did not pay for on the cross?
If yes, then you have a limited atonement. If no, then a person cannot be condemned for unbelief, non-repentance or not accepting Jesus. Unlimited atonement has no limit, no condition, no exceptions to the atonement.
Yet, here you and sbg are, setting limits and making exceptions.
 
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