OldRegular
Well-Known Member
Chemnitz
You pretty well hit the nail on the head in your analysis of dispensational error.
You pretty well hit the nail on the head in your analysis of dispensational error.
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To be valid, an exposition must have the following elements:Originally posted by ascund:
Greetings
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />The philosophy of history is “a systematic interpretation of universal history in accordance with a principle by which historical events and successions are unified and directed toward ultimate meaning.”
[Karl Lowith, Meaning in History (Chicago: The University of Chicago Press, 1949), 1 in Renald E. Showers, There Really Is A Difference: A Comparison of Covenant and Dispensational Theology (Bellmawr, NJ: The Friends of Israel Gospel Ministry, 1990), 1.]
This is certainly inconsistent with the views of dispensationalist Herman Hoyt in The Millennium, Four Viewpoints, by Clouse, page 43, who writes “The dispensationalist interprets the New Testament in light of the Old Testament.” If revelation is progressive then the Old Testament must be interpreted in light of the New Testament. Hebrews [1:1,2] tells us3. It must have a proper concept of the progress of revelation.
Regarding your point #4 above1. God, who at various times and in various ways spoke in time past to the fathers by the prophets,
2. has in these last days spoken to us by His Son, whom He has appointed heir of all things, through whom also He made the worlds;
The claim by dispensationalists, which Charles Ryrie [quoting from Lewis Sperry Chafer, Dispensationalism] calls the sine qua non of dispensationalists is that4. It must have a unifying principle which ties the distinctions and progressive stages and directs them toward the fulfillment of the purpose of history.
This enduring difference between peoples of God can hardly be calledThe dispensationalist believes that throughout the ages God is pursuing two distinct purposes: one related to the earth with earthly people and earthly objectives involved, which is Judaism; while the other is related to heaven with heavenly people and heavenly objectives involved, which is Christianity.”
Actually dispensationalism is an elitest doctrine and cannot be derived from a natural reading of Scripture. When one reads the Bible he reads of God's covenants not dispensations.a unifying principle.
As far as I am aware perfection dwelt in only one man, and it wasn't Darby or Scofield.Originally posted by Pastor Larry:
I missed that post, OR. Where was it? So far, all I saw from Chemnitz was faulty argumentation, and faulty use of Scripture. In fact, in one post on the previous page, he actually contradicted himself.
??? This had nothing to do with my question. I said nothing about DArby or Schofield. You said Chemnitz "pretty well hit the nail on the head in your analysis of dispensational error" and I was just asking where he did this. I missed it, and would like to see it.As far as I am aware perfection dwelt in only one man, and it wasn't Darby or Scofield.
This enduring difference between peoples of God can hardly be calledThe claim by dispensationalists, which Charles Ryrie [quoting from Lewis Sperry Chafer, Dispensationalism] calls the sine qua non of dispensationalists is that
</font><blockquote>quote:</font><hr />The dispensationalist believes that throughout the ages God is pursuing two distinct purposes: one related to the earth with earthly people and earthly objectives involved, which is Judaism; while the other is related to heaven with heavenly people and heavenly objectives involved, which is Christianity.”
</font>[/QUOTE]You are conflating two things, and in the process misrepresenting dispensationalism (as is often typical of those who try to refute it). DT has three sine qua non. 1) fundamental distinction between Isreal and the church; 2) consistent use of literal or normal hermeneutic; 3) God's pursuit of his own glory as the underlying purpose of history.a unifying principle.
I have seen this before, but never seen it substantiated. It seems a baseless charge with no underlying facts to support it. There is nothing elitist about dispensationalism. There is, however, as you have demonstrated, a lot of confusion about it.Actually dispensationalism is an elitest doctrine
Actually, it is very easily derived from the natural reading of Scripture. Naturally, when you see the word "Isreal" you think of the nation. Only an unnatural reading would lead one to think of "the church."and cannot be derived from a natural reading of Scripture.
How are these distinct? In Scripture, you see several covenants: Abrahamic, Mosaic, Davidic, and New. These are adequately dealt with only in dispensationalism. Covenant theology talks of a covenant of works and covenant of grace, but Scripture never does. In fact, no Covenant theologian has ever successfully shown a covenant of works or grace in Scripture. Which is significant for this reason. They often make the charge that these "dispensations" can't be found in Scripture. But they rely on covenants that can't be found in Scripture. They are inconsistent on this point.When one reads the Bible he reads of God's covenants not dispensations.
Pastor LarryOriginally posted by Pastor Larry:
I missed that post, OR. Where was it? So far, all I saw from Chemnitz was faulty argumentation, and faulty use of Scripture. In fact, in one post on the previous page, he actually contradicted himself.
You correcctly state that God set up Israel as a parenthesis nation. And what was that purpose? It was solely in order to provide a vessel, a woman, who would bring the Incarnate God, Jesus Christ into the world. Through His death Jesus Christ would defeat Satan and make atonement for the sins of His people, thus fulfilling the promise made in Genesis 3:15. Israel's part in God's purpose of redemption was complete, period.Originally posted by ascund:
Hey OldRegular
But God was willing to set up a parenthesis Israelite nation. When the Israelites had pressed God's patience (is this actually possible), God responded by telling Moses that he would consume the rebells and make a parenthesis nation from Moses (Ex 32:10).
You should have read the entire post. Then you would have learned why God needed a people, call it a nation, to bring Jesus Christ into the world. You really don't believe that God could have just dropped the Incarnate Son down in the middle of a pagan people do you?Originally posted by Pastor Larry:
I skipped the article, but surely you are not serious that the sole purpose of Israel was to provide a Savior. That was one purpose, perhaps, but he certainly needed no nation for that. There was clearly more to it, as the Bible declares.
Here is just one problem with your post: Matthew 21:43, KJV
43. Therefore say I unto you, The kingdom of God shall be taken from you, and given to a nation bringing forth the fruits thereof.
What nation was to be the recipient of the Kingdom of God? The obvious answer is the Church. The church is not a nation. That is a reference to end time Israel, the nation that will bring forth the fruits of repentance in fulfillment of Zech 12:10. The Bible tells us that Israel will be the nation to whom the kingdom is given. If not, then is is hard to see how God was not dishonest or unfaithful to his promises. God made them ... Surely he will keep them.
You would also have learned that the Church is called a nation by the Apostle Peter.This initial promise, the initial revelation and the initiation in time of the Covenant of Grace, is veiled to say the least and could not be understood without the continuing revelation of God. But God does not leave us without hope. As the Biblical history of man unfolds so does God’s purpose of redemption.
If the Redeemer was to be born of a woman and that birth was to take place in history the way must be prepared. The Redeemer must be identified with God since He was to reconcile sinful man to God and since He was a man, the seed of a woman, He must be identified with the people of God. It was necessary, therefore, that God call out a people for His Name. Unto that people would be given the oracles of God [Romans 3:2] and through that people would come the promised Redeemer.
To avoid confusion look at the passage in context:What nation was to be the recipient of the Kingdom of God? The obvious answer is the Church. However, for evidence we turn to Scripture. We read in the Gospel of Luke:
Luke 12:31, 32, KJV
31. But rather seek ye the kingdom of God; and all these things shall be added unto you.
32. Fear not, little flock; for it is your Father's good pleasure to give you the kingdom.
The little flock is the Church, the called out ones, who would bring forth the fruits of the Kingdom. For those who would insist that the Church cannot be identified as a nation we turn to the writings of the Apostle Peter:
1 Peter 2:9, KJV
9. But ye [are] a chosen generation, a royal priesthood, an holy nation, a peculiar people; that ye should shew forth the praises of him who hath called you out of darkness into his marvellous light:
Solely was perhaps a poor choice of words but it was used in the following contextOriginally posted by Pastor Larry:
I skipped the article, but surely you are not serious that the sole purpose of Israel was to provide a Savior.
When Genesis 3:15 was fulfilled in time it was necessary that there exist a people of God. Israel was that chosen people. As a people of God they received the oracles of God and when obedient worshipped and glorified God. They were also to be a witness to God among the Gentiles.If the Redeemer was to be born of a woman and that birth was to take place in history the way must be prepared. The Redeemer must be identified with God since He was to reconcile sinful man to God and since He was a man, the seed of a woman, He must be identified with the people of God. It was necessary, therefore, that God call out a people for His Name. Unto that people would be given the oracles of God [Romans 3:2] and through that people would come the promised Redeemer.
It is a common practice when one is unable to respond adequately to accuse the other of proof-texting, therefore, avoiding the necessity to provide any refutation from Scripture.Originally posted by Pastor Larry:
OR,
Theologically, the article was very weak. It is the worst kind of proof-texting, just stringing verses together.
But even at that, the promises of the OT were made to a nation, and those promises are yet unfulfilled. Isn't God shown to be unfaithful if he doesn't fulfill them?
IF I say that the Scripture permits stealing and cite Ephesians where it says "Let him that stole steal," it is worthy of response? There are some proof texts that merit no response. In this case, all you have done is string texts together without showing any connection between them. It is no question about my ability to respond adequately. In fact, I have put way too much time in this already to say what I have said. You have responded to virtually none of it.It is a common practice when one is unable to respond adequately to accuse the other of proof-texting, therefore, avoiding the necessity to provide any refutation from Scripture.
Well, when you cite Rom 9:6, you should also indicate what the context teaches. The context is clearly one of national Israel, not the church. When he says that not all Israel are Israel, He is saying that not all physical Israel is saved. He is not saying that there are some in Israel who are not Jews. That would be absurd. He is saying that saved Jews are only a small portion of Jews.Dispensationalists claim to believe in progressive revelation. The Apostle Paul tells us, here I go proof-texting again, in Romans 9:6: Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:
How do you know which promises were to be fulfilled in the nation Israel and which were to be fulfilled in the believing remnant, the olive tree of Romans 11, into which the believing Gentiles were grafted? I believe it has been called the Church for the last 2000 years.
Originally posted by OldRegular:
It is a common practice when one is unable to respond adequately to accuse the other of proof-texting, therefore, avoiding the necessity to provide any refutation from Scripture.
Your response consisted of saying I was just proof texting. That could not have taken very long.Response by Pastor Larry:
IF I say that the Scripture permits stealing and cite Ephesians where it says "Let him that stole steal," it is worthy of response? There are some proof texts that merit no response. In this case, all you have done is string texts together without showing any connection between them. It is no question about my ability to respond adequately. In fact, I have put way too much time in this already to say what I have said. You have responded to virtually none of it.
Originally posted by OldRegular:
Dispensationalists claim to believe in progressive revelation. The Apostle Paul tells us, here I go proof-texting again, in Romans 9:6: Not as though the word of God hath taken none effect. For they are not all Israel, which are of Israel:
How do you know which promises were to be fulfilled in the nation Israel and which were to be fulfilled in the believing remnant, the olive tree of Romans 11, into which the believing Gentiles were grafted? I believe it has been called the Church for the last 2000 years.
Did I say otherwise? If so please show me where.Response by Pastor Larry:
Well, when you cite Rom 9:6, you should also indicate what the context teaches. The context is clearly one of national Israel, not the church. When he says that not all Israel are Israel, He is saying that not all physical Israel is saved. He is not saying that there are some in Israel who are not Jews. That would be absurd. He is saying that saved Jews are only a small portion of Jews.
Originally posted by OldRegular:
How do you know which promises were to be fulfilled in the nation Israel and which were to be fulfilled in the believing remnant, the olive tree of Romans 11, into which the believing Gentiles were grafted? I believe it has been called the Church for the last 2000 years.
You conveniently avoided the question which wasResponse by Pastor Larry:
When you ask about which promises will be fulfilled in the nation of Israel, the answer is simple: All of them. God always fulfills promises with the people to whom he made them. The fact that Gentiles are included in God's big plan does not mean that those promises are now null and void. They are still good, and God is faithful. He will keep his promises.
Pastor LarryHow do you know which promises were to be fulfilled in the nation Israel and which were to be fulfilled in the believing remnant?
Truth is, if you were charged to find the "covenant of grace" in Scripture, you would find it right next to the verse on the dispensation of conscience ... You have to be "schooled" to find it. The problem is that a change in dispensations can be substantiated; the covenant of grace cannot be. Neither is explicitly referenced.The reason dispensationalists can't see the Covenant of Grace in Scripture is that they have splintered it instead of "rightly dividing it".
Everything else that he does. I don't think it is a matter or "more glory" or "less glory." It is a matter that God's glory comes from more than just redemption.As for the Glory of God what could be more edifying to God than the demonstration of His Grace in the redemption of His Creation?
Yes, but you misrepresented it by conflating # 1 and 3.Also I misrepresented nothing. I am well aware that there are three sine qua non of dispensationalism. Ryrie lists all three in his book Dispensationalism, page 38f.
Which has nothing to do with elitism.As for dispensationalism being elitist Ryrie in his book Dispensationalism [page 52], inadvertently perhaps, admits such when he writes: “The average dispensationalist has been SCHOOLED to designate the second economy as Conscience.”
Like much of your responses, you have no texts here. THat is certainly one way to avoid prooftexting.There I go, proof-texting again.
God did cause the rejection of Jesus Christ by most Jewish leaders as confirmed by Jesus Christ in Matthew 13 and the Apostle Paul in Acts 28 but apparently the premier dispensationalist theologians? are unable to understand that so they describe the Church as follows:Originally posted by Ed Edwards:
Other Christian Denomination
Dispensationalism (Page 4)
Pastor Larry: "It would be unfortunate for you to conclude that the church was
a change of plans. God, who knows all things exhaustively, was
not surprised by Isreal's rejection. In fact, he prophesied it
(Isa 6) and I would say even caused it, in a sense."
Amen, Pastor Larry -- Preach it!