Originally posted by jimslade:
Bible boy;
You still do not understand the Jewish tradition of engagement and marriage. Study and get back to me.
The word for divorce and putting away are the SAME!!!!!! Thats why you don'[t understand the passage fully.
Hello Jim,
Let me assure you that I fully understand ancient Jewish culture/tradition regarding engagement and marriage. As far as study goes I have just finished my BA in Biblical Studies here at Southeastern Baptist College at Wake Forest. Now I am working on my Masters Degree here at Southeastern Baptist Theological Seminary. Likewise, I am not some “young hotshot preacher-boy,” I am nearly 40 years old and I have been a student of the Bible since I was saved in 1976 (going on 27 years of Bible study). It is not a question of my understanding or lack thereof. So please cut the condescension. It is a question of interpretation and I do not happen to agree with your interpretation regarding Matthew 1:18-25 or your attempt to use it to justify your position on divorce with respect to the qualification of a Pastor. Also, you still did not address my question. Can a man be divorced from a woman to whom he is not married? All that is required is a simple yes or no.
All sins are supposed to be forgiven? right?
First, most of these questions are red herrings. I’ll answer them, but please let’s stick to the issue at hand. We are talking about divorce with respect to Pastors. So let’s deal with the biblical texts that address that issue and stop with the rabbit chasing. With that said here are my answers:
If the sinner confesses and repents he is forgiven. Therefore, YES.
Would you allow A Christian that has a problem with Money to be the church treasurer?
Not one who currently
has such a problem. However, I would allow one who
had such a problem and has confessed and repented, and whose life and character now demonstrate that God has delivered that person from that problem.
Same with someone who cannot look after his wife to be able to look after a congregation.
You are assuming that the man cannot learn or has not learned from his previous life experience. Likewise, you are assuming that God cannot heal and grow the man to be the leader that He wants the man to be. It looks as if your view of God is somewhat small or that you are placing God in a box.
If you would, I have some swamp land in florida you may be interested in.
Actually, I would be.

You see I used to be and Environmental Scientist before surrendering to the call to ministry. Specifically, I was a U.S. Army Corps of Engineers Certified Wetland Delineator. Therefore, Florida swamp land would be very interesting to me. Again, let’s stick to the issue at hand and leave off with the sarcasm.
David sinned and was forgiven by God, what happened after his sin? He had to pay the price!
Yes, he paid the price for his sin. However, he remained King over a united Israel. He remained God’s chosen man for the job in which God had called/placed him. You need a better proof text.
No one today will take responsibility for their actions!
Sorry this is a false statement. This is the fallacy of “all-ness.” If I can find one person who takes responsibility for his/her actions your statement is proven false. I take responsibility for my actions. Therefore, your statement is false. BTW, now many posters to the board here would also say that they take responsibility for their own actions? Would you say that you do not take responsibility for your actions?
The bondage issue Paul is talking about, does not in anyway refer to the freedom to remarry.
Its reffering to . You are no longer under the authority of the husband and you don't have to live with him anymore.
You are not following the meaning of the text to its logical conclusion. You have stopped short of actually making the person free. If they are not free to remarry they remain under bondage. Free means free – no restrictions. Your statement above leaves the person under bondage and makes the biblical text contradict itself. The Word of God cannot contradict itself. Additionally, your interpretation does not make logical sense because if the unbelieving spouse has left then the believing spouse already is
not living with him anymore. Why would they need to be told that they do not have to live with the unbelieving spouse anymore when they are already not living with him? Likewise, what if the unbelieving spouse who leaves is the wife? Your interpretation does not work because the husband was not under the authority of the wife. The biblical text says that the person is no longer under bondage and that means that the person is free. If you say that a person is free and then place some restriction over them they are not truly free. That is a limited freedom at best and as such does not reflect the meaning and intent of the biblical text.
Why dont we open the jails and forgive like Jesus said we should?
Have all convicts confessed and repented of their sins? Do their actions and character demonstrate that they have repented, that God has radically changed their lives, and thus should be released? And… (see my answer to your next question)
Its because there are consequences for our actions,
You are correct. However, Jesus did not give and exception for murder, rape, child molestation, etc. He did give an exception for divorce in cases where one spouse has committed adultery.
Today the consequence of the marriage breakdown is a single life, you no longer qualify for marriage.
This statement cannot be supported from the Scriptures. The Bible gives two exceptions for divorce: adultery and desertion by an unbelieving spouse. In these circumstances one is free to remarry. If you are going to espouse literal interpretation of the Bible then you must apply literal interpretation across the board. If you find yourself having to make up a bunch of reasons why a verse does not “really” mean what the text clearly says you have departed from literal interpretation. Likewise, the Bible says that it is better for someone to re-marry than to burn. That passage is referring to a person who has been married and experienced sexual intimacy. The burning referred to means to burn with sexual desire. These types of “no divorce/no freedom to remarry” interpretations place people in the position to burn with sexual desire and leaves them open to sexual temptation and sin. We must follow our interpretations all the way through to their logical conclusions. We cannot stop half way just so we can make our interpretation fit with our preconceived notions/doctrines.
If you knew that you could not remarry then I think people would put all their efforts into reconciliation.
Perhaps. However, what if an adulterous spouse refuses to repent and be reconciled? The non-adulterous spouse can attempt to reconcile until he/she is blue in the face and no reconciliation will occur. It takes both partners being willing to reconcile. If this adulterous spouse professes to be a Christian and the church puts him/her through the process of church discipline as outlined in Matthew 18 and he/she refuses to repent and be reconciled, then the church and the non-adulterous spouse are to treat him/her as a heathen and a tax collector (Matt. 18:17). Additionally, 1 Corinthians 5:1-13 says that in such a case we are not to keep company with the sexually immoral, which includes adulterous persons, and are to “put away from yourselves the evil person” (1 Cor. 5:13, NKJV). Now according to you “divorce” and “putting away” mean the same thing. Therefore, once again the “no divorce/no remarriage” interpretations make the Bible contradict itself. I hope that we agree that the Word of God cannot contradict itself.
One of the problems here is that your suggested idea does not address the exception passages found in Matthew and Corinthians. I agree that all efforts must be made to reconcile. However, if an adulterous spouse is unrepentant and will not be reconciled to the non-adulterous spouse Jesus provided an exception for divorce and thereby freedom for the non-adulterous spouse.
Why is the exeception rule found only in Matthew?
otherwise there would be a conflict with Matthew 1-18-20.
Because Matthew was there when Jesus said it, he remembered that Jesus said it, and the Holy Spirit led him to write it down in his Gospel account.
How would the absence of Matthew 19:1-12 cause conflict with Matthew 1:18-20? According to you there is no exception for divorce and that is why Joseph did not put Mary away secretly. In fact, the position that you are trying to maintain would be much more valid if Matthew 19:1-12 was not in the Bible. It would be a completely different story if the exception passage of Matthew 19 was not in the Bible and Joseph had actually put Mary away. Then we would have a contradiction between Matthew 1:18, Matthew 5:31-32, Mark 10:1-12, and Luke 16:18.
The one of the points of the Matthew 1:18-25 passage is that Joseph did not put Mary away secretly because the angel of the Lord led him to understand that she had not committed adultery. Therefore, Joseph had no right to put her away in the first place, which actually adds support to the Matthew 19 exception passage.
[ January 03, 2003, 08:34 AM: Message edited by: BibleboyII ]