David was a calvinist,believed in the everlasting covenant,and did not believe in free will.![]()
Good stuff.
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David was a calvinist,believed in the everlasting covenant,and did not believe in free will.![]()
I think it highly unlikely that David (King David) ever heard of John Calvin.
David was a calvinist,believed in the everlasting covenant,and did not believe in free will.![]()
He may not have believed in free will, but he sure did exercise it! Does Bathsheba ring a bell? :laugh:
He may not have believed in free will, but he sure did exercise it! Does Bathsheba ring a bell? :laugh:
We really need to come together on an acceptable definition of free will.
If free will means the ability to do what you most want to do then everyone has it- angels and men, saved and lost.
Hey Amy,
What do you say "free will" is? I say it is the ability and opportunity to make choices from a given "sample space" of available choices, parameters made by the creator. I can choose to do whatever I want or don't want to do.
He may not have believed in free will, but he sure did exercise it! Does Bathsheba ring a bell? :laugh:
That might have more to do with lust,and unmortified flesh....not to mention Bathsheba exposing herself publically. He made provision for the flesh...
where your mind is.....your body will soon follow.
Anyone who ever sacrifices for God does so freely.
Until we agree on a definition of free will this conversation is an exercise in futility.
I believe "free will" is best defined as the ability to do what one wants to do.
If anyone sacrifices unto God it is because they want to. They, thus, do it of their own free will.
What Calvin and others condemned when they spoke against "free will" was the really libertarian free will.
But no Calvinist has ever argued that men do not do what they do "freely".
Hey Amy,
I can choose to do whatever I want or don't want to do.
I think it's pretty clear that David did what he most wanted to do with Bathsheba and her husband. He followed the flesh 100%.
Well, if you’re a man interested in logic and defining free will; can you explain how determinism and free will are not mutually exclusive in the matter of volition?
According to “Determinism” for God to be sovereign He must have predestined everything, true?
1) Necessarily God has fore determined everything that will happen
2) God has determined X
3) Therefore it is necessary that X will happen
So, exactly how does the Calvinist define ability/volition and maintain a logical definition of his determinist' view?
I think we have an accord.
You can choose to do whatever you want to do and choose not to do whatever you don't want to do.
Right.
Now we're getting somewhere.
Absolutely.
Well, that is not quite what I said, but I dont object profusely.
I said, I can choose to do whatever I want to or even choose to do something I don't want to do.
That syllogism does not negate free will.
All Christians believe that God has determined some things to happen and many of those have to do with men.
No one has a problem with the idea that those things will not "violate" man's free will.
Prove it...logically...I've shown a truth concerning the necessary determinist view and asked how that is not mutually exclusive with free will, you have given me nothing of value to support your argument.
Your begging the question there Luke, sorry, but your answer shows proves nothing and uses a fallacy instead.
You are begging the question when you contend that determinism being that which will cause some things to infallibly come to pass means that free will cannot be involved. That is not at all demonstrated in your syllogism. You just presuppose that since determinism means that what is determined MUST come to pass then free will cannot be involved.
WHY NOT?
(A) According to “Determinism” for God to be sovereign He must have predestined everything, true?
(B)
1) Necessarily God has fore determined everything that will happen
2) God has determined X
3) Therefore it is necessary that X will happen
I'm not begging any question, I've stated a definition of determism and asked if it is not mutually exclusive with volition. So, first do you agree with this or not?:
If you do then does this not clarify the determinist' view?:
All you have to do is either tell me why it doesn't represent your view or explain in a logical mannner how this view is not mutually exclusive with creaturely volition?