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Do you use the 1611 KJV?

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Eliyahu

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Apocrypha

One thing I have to add on this was that Josephus mentioned canon in his "Against Apion" which states 22 books, including 12 minor prophets in one book, Samuel and Kings combined, Ezra-Nehmiah combined, etc.around AD90, which may be just before Jamneah Council.

Qumaran documents quote the scriptures similar to Josephus.

In other words, the exclusion of AP from the canon was not a new thing established by KJV, but they existed before and KJV translators agreed to such classification.

I don't think KJV established such criteria newly for themselves, but when KJV chose Masoretc Text as a basis, the criteria must have followed it. I don't think they rejected Jewish classification but just reconfirmed what was already established and believed.
 
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Askjo

New Member
The KJV translators did not put the Apocrypha in the Old Testament, nor the New Testament, but why did they put it in the middle between the OT and the NT? I guess that they knew that this Apocrypha is non-canonical, but it is historical.
 
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Bro Tony

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Askjo said:
The KJV translators did not put the Apocrypha in the Old Testament, nor the New Testament, but why did they put it in the middle between the OT and the NT? I guess that they knew that this Apocrypha is non-canonical, but it is historical.
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This statement makes me laugh, because of the continued double standard. If the NIV were to put a portion of greek mythology in the middle of it the KJVOist would say this proves its not the Word of God because they have added greek mythology.:rolleyes:

Bro Tony

Hey Ed---here is another one for your double standard thread. This is what I intended to say all along. LOL
 
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Askjo

New Member
Bro Tony said:
This statement makes me laugh, because of the continued double standard. If the NIV were to put a portion of greek mythology in the middle of it the KJVOist would say this proves its not the Word of God because they have added greek mythology.:rolleyes:

Bro Tony

Hey Ed---here is another one for your double standard thread. This is what I intended to say all along. LOL
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I have the KJV w/o it.
 
K

Keith M

New Member
Askjo said:
I have the KJV w/o it.
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Of course you do, as do the vast majority of people who use the KJV today. However, the Apocrypha was a part of the 1611 KJV. So the KJV you use today is different than the 1611 KJV in that it omits the Apocrypha. And you say the KJV is unchanged! Shame on you! :laugh:

And you're absolutely right about the double standard, Bro Tony. But then the very roots of the KJVO myth are errors and double standards. :thumbs:
 
robycop3

robycop3

Well-Known Member
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Can anyone even GUESS why the Apocrypha were placed into the AV 1611? I shall guess and say, for historical glimpses of the lifestyle of the Jews of the Maccabeean Era.
 
K

Keith M

New Member
robycop3 said:
Can anyone even GUESS why the Apocrypha were placed into the AV 1611? I shall guess and say, for historical glimpses of the lifestyle of the Jews of the Maccabeean Era.
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Hmmm...could it have been that the Anglican Church, being so very close to the Catholic Church, actually accepted the Apocrypha as part of Scripture?
 
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