God's justice is only involved if you MAKE that into a premise and alter the original question. You don't get to do that. But I'll deflate your attempt to avoid the question anyway.
Who was God punishing in demonstration of justice BEFORE HE CREATED THE WORLD?
Now back to the original question. The question is about what God WANTS and DESIRES. If that's too complicated for you, eat a Snickers and try later.
Look, nobody is stupid enough to miss your intent as you plainly state it in these words "Let's see how many people will be honest and consistent with their theology." So it is designed to be a "gotcha" question.
Second, your question says nothing about BEFORE CREATION.
Third, there was no rape, molestation, abuse BEFORE CREATION, all of these are POST-fall events due to sin.
Did God allow, permit, sin - yes because he could have prevented it several different ways. He could have created people in a sustained sinless condition. He could have never given a test. He could have destroyed Adam and Eve Instantly.
No, we do not attribute sin to God BEFORE CREATION in regard to His good pleasure but we do attribute sin to God according to both His foreknowledge and His permission and thus by His design and consistent with His eternal purpose or else He could have prevented it a number of differnent ways.
The creation of moral choice in an unfallen state necessitated the option of sin. HOWEVER DON'T CONFUSE MORAL CHOICE IN AN UNFALLEN CONDITION WITH CHOICE IN A FALLEN CONDITION AS THEY ARE NOT THE SAME.
Bottom line, God permits rape, murder, molestation, etc. every single day and it is consistent with His eternal purpose in regard to the fall and sin and is consistent with his Justice OR ELSE HE WOULD PREVENT IT as that is precisely what Psa. 76:10 states explicitly.
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