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Does Scripture Need "Fixing?"

Rippon

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Translators should translate the text, not add to it with speculation.
I wholehearedly agree.
If the reason Jesus was moved with anger had been given, then and only then should the reason be translated.
I wholehearedly agree.
If Paul had wanted to say "indignant" he would have used a different Greek word. This should not be this hard.
Read my post 36. It answers your confusion on the matter.
 

Van

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No, post #36 sidesteps the fact that a different Greek word is used for indignation. That is why the NIV translates it as indignation or indignant!
 

Van

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Mat 20:24

When the ten heard about this, they were indignant with the two brothers.

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Mat 21:15

But when the chief priests and the teachers of the law saw the wonderful things he did and the children shouting in the temple courts, “Hosanna to the Son of David,” they were indignant.

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Mat 26:8

When the disciples saw this, they were indignant. “Why this waste?” they asked.

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Mar 10:14

When Jesus saw this, he was indignant. He said to them, “Let the little children come to me, and do not hinder them, for the kingdom of God belongs to such as these.

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Mar 10:41

When the ten heard about this, they became indignant with James and John.

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Mar 14:4

Some of those present were saying indignantly to one another, “Why this waste of perfume?

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Luk 13:14

Indignant because Jesus had healed on the Sabbath, the synagogue leader said to the people, “There are six days for work. So come and be healed on those days, not on the Sabbath.”
 

Rippon

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Matthew 20:24
NET : angry
NKJV : greatly displeased
YLT : much displeased

Matthew 21:15
YLT : much displeased

Matthew 26:8
YLT : much displeased

Mark 10:14
NKJV : greatly displeased
YLT : much displeased

Mark 14:4
YLT : much displeased

Luke 13:14
YLT : much displeased
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You see, there is not just one particular way to translate. You seem to think if it doesn't meet with your exact specifications --then it fails. But as you can see above with some of your favorite versions --your way is not the only way.
 

Rippon

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You have acknowledged that you are not proficient in English. If only you were familiar with the meaning of words. I will help you Van.

According to Merriam-Webster, indignant means ":feeling or showing anger because of something unjust or unworthy: filled with or marked by indignation."

M-W uses, as an example :"Melville was so struck by the dram of the Essex (deliberately battered by an indignant and maddened whale, which at last brained itself by sinking the ship) that he used it as the end of Moby-Dick." --Paul Theroux, New York Times Book Review, 11 June 2000.

In a synonym discussion:"Anger :the most general term, names the reaction but by itself does not convey cause or intensity." On the other hand, "Indignation stresses righteous anger at what one considers unfair, mean, or shameful."

In a snippet regarding Mark 1:41, Doug Moo, the head of the NIV translation team has said :"As we saw what the man with leprosy had suffered, Jesus responded initially with 'anger' or 'indignation' at the terrible plight of people in the sin-ravaged world."
The above was designed especially for the ESL-challenged Van.
 
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Van

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Lets see if I can unpack this. Mr. Rippon thinks the NIV should have translated 6 verses where they use indignant, as displeased. This somehow supports translating another Greek word as indignant, when it means angry. OK Fine, gotcha.

Folks, the NIV messed up the translation of the anger variant at Mark 1:41, they said "was indignant" and should have translated it without speculation as moved with anger. This should not be this hard.
 

Rippon

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Mr. Rippon thinks the NIV should have translated 6 verses where they use indignant, as displeased.
No, I gave examples in which various translations that you favor used wordings other than indignant. There is not one magical set-in-stone, exact wording that must be used. Do you know what a synonym means Van? It's a word that has the same meaning as another word.

You know the NIrV is based on the NIV only at a simplified third grade level. Well, the NIrV uses "became angry" at Mark 1:41. Since it is based on the NIV obviously "became angry" means the same as "was indignant."

The CEB has "incensed" in that verse. At Vocabulary.com it says the meaning of 'incensed' "=angered at something unjust or wrong." Merriam-Webster :"to arouse the extreme anger or indignation of."

Do you get the connection now?
Folks, the NIV messed up the translation of the anger variant at Mark 1:41, they said "was indignant" and should have translated it without speculation as moved with anger.
What speculation? Being indignant means being angry. You're messed up Van. ;-)
This should not be this hard.
You've got that right!
 

Van

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LOL, the NIV translates consistently one Greek word as indignant, but that is not the word in the anger variant. The Greek word in the anger variant means anger or angry. Then Mr. Rippon seems to suggest there is no difference in meaning between indignant and angry. As I said, LOL
 

Van

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Again, according to Mr. Rippon, the NIV should have translated the word meaning indignant as displeased or angry but they didn't. Then he claims a word they translate as angry should be translated as indignant, but they didn't. Cognitive dissonance anyone?

Just as the color red should not be translated as blue just because they are both colors, being angry should not be translated as indignant because they both reflect states of mind.
 

Rippon

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You have acknowledged that you are not proficient in English. If only you were familiar with the meaning of words. I will help you Van.

According to Merriam-Webster, indignant means ":feeling or showing anger because of something unjust or unworthy: filled with or marked by indignation."
Repetition is a didactic principle. I have to repeat things on a regular basis for Van because he is slow to learn.
 

Logos1560

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I

Bottom line, scripture does not need "fixing!"

Is that a straw man accusation or distortion? Who at this forum argues that the Scriptures given by inspiration of God to the prophets and apostles need fixing?

What would be actually claimed to need fixing would be any errors introduced by imperfect men in copying, in printing, or in translating the Scriptures.

Imperfect men disagree over what changes or errors men have made in copying the Scriptures and in translating the Scriptures. Because someone may disagree with your opinions of how to translate certain words, does it entitle you to accuse them of claiming that the scriptures need fixing?
 

Van

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No, Logos, it is what is called a rhetorical question. The idea is translators should not alter the message to fix perceived problems. Their actions make the claim, not their pious words. Changing evening had already come to evening was approaching cannot be justified. In that verse, and some of the other 26 examples, the text was changed in an effort to "fix" scripture.

Mistranslation in the NIV
1) Isaiah 12:3 the omission of the conjunction should read, "therefore" *
2) Mark 1:41 Jesus was indignant should read, "moved with anger." *
3) John 1:16 does not seem any more flawed than many other translations, what the text actually says is "And out of His abundance we all also obtained grace against grace." *
4) John 21:5 friends should read, "children."
5) Acts 13:50 "leaders" should be italicized to indicate an addition to the text.
6) Romans 3:25 sacrifice of atonement should read, "propitiatory shelter."*
7) 1 Corinthians 16:13 "be courageous" should read, "act like men."
8) Ephesians 2:3 deserving of wrath should read, "children of wrath."
9) Colossians 1:28 the omission of "every man" (or every person) reduces the force of the teaching that the gospel is understandable to every person.*
10) 2 Thess. 2:13 to be saved should read, "for salvation."
11) 2 Thess. 3:6 who is idle should read, "who leads an undisciplined life" *
12) 1 Timothy 3:16 appeared in the flesh should read, "revealed in the flesh."*
13) Titus 3:4 love should read, "love for mankind." *
14) Hebrews 10:14 sacrifice should read, "offering."
15) James 2:5 to be rich in faith should read, "yet rich in faith."
16) 1 Peter 4:6 those who are now dead should read, "those who are dead."
17) 1 John 2:2 atoning sacrifice should read, "propitiation." *
18) 1 John 4:10 atoning sacrifice should read, "propitiation."
19) Rev. 13:8 from the creation should read, "from the foundation."
20) Rev. 22:21 be with God's people should read, "be with all."
21) 1 Samuel 15:19 the Lord should read "the voice of the Lord." *
22) 1 Samuel 15:20 the Lord should read "the voice of the Lord." *
23) 1 Samuel 15:22 the Lord should read "the voice of the Lord." *
24) Philemon 1:6 the verse should read as follows: "I pray that your participation in the faith may be effective in deepening your understanding of every blessing that belongs to you in Christ."
25) 1 Corinthians 14:29 should read "Let two or three prophets speak, and the others evaluate." The NIV added "carefully" and "what is said."
26) Mark 15:42 "evening approached" should read "evening had already come."
27) Matthew 27:57 "evening approached" should read "evening had come."


Examples 1, 9, 13, 21, 22, and 23 document omission of words or parts of words.
Examples 5, 15, 16 and 25 document addition of words.
Examples 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8, 10, 11, 12, 14, 17, 18, 19, 20, 26 and 27 document replacement of the inspired word with a different word or different words.
Example 24 documents a translation devoid of meaning, just an array of disconnected phrases.
 
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Van

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How many of the 27 examples from post #53 would qualify as "conjectural emendations?
 

Rippon

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24) Philemon 1:6 the verse should read as follows: "I pray that your participation in the faith may be effective in deepening your understanding of every blessing that belongs to you in Christ."
Example 24 documents a translation devoid of meaning, just an array of disconnected phrases.
LOL! It's your own "translation" sonny.
 

Van

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Why is it folks, that when I ask a question, none of the 5 pointers chooses to answer?
 

Rippon

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How many of the 27 examples from post #53 would qualify as "conjectural emendations?
All of your examples have been debunked many times by yours truly.
You have simply listed your preferences, including a number that are entirely novel; not appearing in any Bible translation.
You have set yourself up an an authority.
You have virtually issued pronouncements.
Any phraselogy which differs from your subjective judgment is deemed by you to be deeply flawed.
Yet what is actually flawed is your puerile conduct.
 

Van

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Folks, more evasion, more insults, and no answers. Lets consider just one, Acts 13:50 where leaders was inserted to "correct" the possible interpretation that each and every Jew opposed the Paul and Barnabas.
If we apply this metric to the KJV in Revelation, where text was added to fix a perceived problem, why not apply the same metric to the NIV.
 

HankD

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Folks, more evasion, more insults, and no answers. Lets consider just one, Acts 13:50 where leaders was inserted to "correct" the possible interpretation that each and every Jew opposed the Paul and Barnabas.
If we apply this metric to the KJV in Revelation, where text was added to fix a perceived problem, why not apply the same metric to the NIV.
This is an age old issue in translation work Van and will never be overcome (until He gets here) because it is part subjective, part factual, part cultural, part grammatical, and then add to that what has been lost in nuance over the ages.

HankD
 

Rippon

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Acts 13:50 where leaders was inserted to "correct" the possible interpretation that each and every Jew opposed the Paul and Barnabas.
The words "Jewish leaders" is used in the Gospels too. Let's look at just seven references in John (there are seven more in the book)with some versions which translate in a way that goes against your wishes.

In 1:19;5:10,15,and 16 CEB, ISV, NET and NLT all use "Jewish leaders." Yes, the NET Bible --one of your favorites. In 7:1,13 and 9:22 the ISV, NET and NLT have "Jewish leaders" while the CEB uses "Jewish authorities" which conveys the same thing.

Here is a snip from Notes from the Committee on Bible Translation.

In many contexts, especially in John, "Jews" appears as a shorthand reference to the particular Jewish leaders who rejected what Jesus did and said, so the updated NIV spells this out in a number of places.
 
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