This post can be so long that we can lost in the details. Do you mind if I just deal with part of it so we can stay on focus?
I didn't mean to imply that I do not have some knowledge of Greek. I have to admit that language was not my best subject. My junior high teacher simply gave me a D- to get me out of his hair. I had to really struggle to learn baby Greek and I still struggle with it but after trial and error over a number of years I can feebly find my way through it.
I really don't understand where you are coming from here. I see this text as the fulfillment of what previously he only communicated orally. I see this text superseding his previous oral instruction and becoming the final established standard for "instruction...correction...teaching...reproof"
The scriptures are given to us in words just as I am typing to you in words. I cannot possibly convey my thoughts in my head without choosing the correct words to type on this forum. It is impossible for me to place my thoughts on this forum first and then interpret them by words later. Likewise, the scriptures provide the inspired basis to interpret correct or incorrect thoughts and that is why "all scriptures are given by inspiration of God" to define right doctrine, teaching, correction and reproof.
My Young's concordance shows me that the same Greek term translated in Romans 4:4 as "imputeth" is the same word translated as "reckoned" (Rom.4:5) and "counted" in Romans 4:6. It would appear that the same thing is meant in all three passages. The fact the recipent of this imputed, reckoned, counted righteousness is "ungodly" (in keeping with the previous description in Romans 3:9-20,23) would highly infer that imputation here is legal/positional/representive instead of actual just as we are legally/positionally/representatively "seated in Christ in heavenly places" but we are actually on earth. I say "legal" because it is used in direct relationship to a legal forensic term "justify." Not only so, but it is directly stated in relationship to an "ungodly" person WITHOUT WORKS and therefore cannot possibly be what you called "infused righteousness" worked out. In addition when Paul deals with the time of imputation in Romans 9:7-11 he excludes what is without question a work of righteousness (circumcision) demanding that justification had already occurred prior to the act of circumcision and thus does not include it but precedes it and accomplished without it. Circumcision simply is a "sign" and "seal" but not inclusive or causative to it. The fact that justification is looked at as a finished act prior to circumcision (Rom. 4:11; 5:1-2) demonstrates it is not something progressive or an incompleted action being carried out.
Ephesians 2:10 says that "good works" are not the product of faith but the product of being "created in Christ Jesus." No human being can create anything as that is the sole work of God. Hence, faith is not in view here even though this creative work of God may accompany faith (v. 8) but Paul is really looking at divine quickening (Eph. 2:1,5, 10).
In contrast, I think James is talking about the fruits of what you call "infused" righteousness as evidential of justification by faith. This is what Paul talks about in Romans 6-8. However, Romans 3:24-5:21 deals with legal representation by Christ for the "ungodly." Together they provide both a personal and positional righteousness or actual and legal or righteousness in us verus for us.
I think it is one of the biggest mistakes in theological history to separate them one from the other or pit them against each other or change their logical relationships to each other.
I understand you entirely. However, I have found that once things are defined and understood they can be simplified to easy understanding. Also unfortunately, we live in a society were we cannot take for granted words as anyone will tell you when purchasing from a used car dealer. Just like the motto the buyer beware it is encumbant upon the purchaser to know something of what is being said or they are sold a bill of Goods.
I didn't mean to imply that I do not have some knowledge of Greek. I have to admit that language was not my best subject. My junior high teacher simply gave me a D- to get me out of his hair. I had to really struggle to learn baby Greek and I still struggle with it but after trial and error over a number of years I can feebly find my way through it.
A good verse for Apostolic Tradition working hand in hand with scripture.
I really don't understand where you are coming from here. I see this text as the fulfillment of what previously he only communicated orally. I see this text superseding his previous oral instruction and becoming the final established standard for "instruction...correction...teaching...reproof"
The only reason to be sure of your words is to be sure of your thoughts so, I'm not clear on what you are saying.
The scriptures are given to us in words just as I am typing to you in words. I cannot possibly convey my thoughts in my head without choosing the correct words to type on this forum. It is impossible for me to place my thoughts on this forum first and then interpret them by words later. Likewise, the scriptures provide the inspired basis to interpret correct or incorrect thoughts and that is why "all scriptures are given by inspiration of God" to define right doctrine, teaching, correction and reproof.
Btw imputed isn't the word used in this passage nor do I believe it to be the sense of the passage.
My Young's concordance shows me that the same Greek term translated in Romans 4:4 as "imputeth" is the same word translated as "reckoned" (Rom.4:5) and "counted" in Romans 4:6. It would appear that the same thing is meant in all three passages. The fact the recipent of this imputed, reckoned, counted righteousness is "ungodly" (in keeping with the previous description in Romans 3:9-20,23) would highly infer that imputation here is legal/positional/representive instead of actual just as we are legally/positionally/representatively "seated in Christ in heavenly places" but we are actually on earth. I say "legal" because it is used in direct relationship to a legal forensic term "justify." Not only so, but it is directly stated in relationship to an "ungodly" person WITHOUT WORKS and therefore cannot possibly be what you called "infused righteousness" worked out. In addition when Paul deals with the time of imputation in Romans 9:7-11 he excludes what is without question a work of righteousness (circumcision) demanding that justification had already occurred prior to the act of circumcision and thus does not include it but precedes it and accomplished without it. Circumcision simply is a "sign" and "seal" but not inclusive or causative to it. The fact that justification is looked at as a finished act prior to circumcision (Rom. 4:11; 5:1-2) demonstrates it is not something progressive or an incompleted action being carried out.
Ephesians 2:10 says that "good works" are not the product of faith but the product of being "created in Christ Jesus." No human being can create anything as that is the sole work of God. Hence, faith is not in view here even though this creative work of God may accompany faith (v. 8) but Paul is really looking at divine quickening (Eph. 2:1,5, 10).
In contrast, I think James is talking about the fruits of what you call "infused" righteousness as evidential of justification by faith. This is what Paul talks about in Romans 6-8. However, Romans 3:24-5:21 deals with legal representation by Christ for the "ungodly." Together they provide both a personal and positional righteousness or actual and legal or righteousness in us verus for us.
I think it is one of the biggest mistakes in theological history to separate them one from the other or pit them against each other or change their logical relationships to each other.
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