Heavenly Pilgrim
New Member
DHK, are you saying God cannot quicken His written Word to the heart and mind of a reader, and lead such a one to Himself without a preacher?
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But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness; (1 Corinthians 1:23)DHK, are you saying God cannot quicken His written Word to the heart and mind of a reader, and lead such a one to Himself without a preacher?
But we preach Christ crucified, unto the Jews a stumblingblock, and unto the Greeks foolishness; (1 Corinthians 1:23)
For the preaching of the cross is to them that perish foolishness; but unto us which are saved it is the power of God. (1 Corinthians 1:18)
I am agreeing with what the Bible says. It is my final authority.
Without a doubt you have misinterpreted Scripture. What gives with that?DHK. Something else here in your quote that i cannot understand about you staunch advocates of solar Scriptura and that is saying that the bi ble is final authority , when without any doubt the Bible itself declares that it is the 'church' that is the final answer , Matt. 18: 17-18, and 1 Tim:3-15.... church is final authority.What gives with your contradiction of Holy Scripture ?
DHK: And he said, How can I, except some man should guide me? And he desired Philip that he would come up and sit with him. (Acts 8:31)
For the most part, I agree. However, when you add to that I Corinthians 2:14, "But the natural man receiveth not the things of the Spirit of God: for they are foolishness unto him: neither can he know them, because they are spiritually discerned" then you can rightfully make the application universal.When we try to make statements made specifically by one man concerning his own ability or inability apply universally to all men, we are heading for theological shipwreck.
What if an infidel dropped a simple tract in the mud that had nothing but Scripture in it, to be picked up and read by another? Is it possible that God could use the truth of Scripture to save the reader? If a preacher is absolutely necessary, may I ask what preacher is it? Could a Catholic priest be used by God to the salvation of a hungry soul? I would certainly think so. If not I would have to count out a whole lot of protestant ministers as well. That by no means suggests I am suggesting one go to a Catholic Church to find the truth, neither would I suggest they go to many others, as the truth seem to be lying in the streets to a large degree in relationship to what is so often taught.
Pastor Bob, just one more thought on this passage. Does it not beg the question as to why the natural man receiveth not the things of God and why is he not using spiritual discernment to understand? Could it be a total unwillingness to yield to the light God has given him? Could it not be due to his selfish refusal to come to the light? I would certainly believe that to be the case in multitudes of cases at the very least.
"Cannot" does not always present an impossibility, but rather a total unwillingness. For instance, I 'cannot' do the things I used to do before my conversion. I know full well I 'could' if i so desired, but I also know if I did those things I could not remain in the faith with a right relationship with God. It can rightfully be said I am 'totally unwilling' (I cannot) do some things. Make sense?
The key to understanding this verse IMHO is that to be devoid of spiritual understanding is not to be devoid of spiritual truth. I see the natural man as not one God has not been enlightened by spiritual truth at all, but rather one that has learned to live "AS IF THOUGH" they have no other light. Again it is unwillingness to follow the light they have been given rather than a complete void of spiritual truth. In such a state it could be rightfully stated "neither can he" in the passage you quoted.
Romans is clear. No one, not even the heathen are totally devoid of some spiritual truth. Rom 2:14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves: Rom 7:14 For we know that the law is spiritual...
Biblicist: Does the scripture limit the messenger of the gospel to just humans or is there indications that heavenly messengers (angels) can somehow preach the gospel to men.......... (Gal. 1:8 "we, or an angel from heaven" - Rev. 14:6 "preach the everlasting gospel").
HP: I would have to say according to Scripture the chosen method of spreading the gospel is indeed by the preaching by man the Word of God. With that said, God is a sovereign God and will allow Him room in my theology to do as He alone sees fit. I would say that if one did receive the gospel by a messenger not of this race it would be an exception like in some manner as the conversion of the Apostle Paul. God is certainly able to do as He sees fit.
The Word of God is never devoid of the Spirit of God. "My Word will not return to me void." Whatever the means used, if one is saved it is via the empowement of the Holy Spirit as the Word is set forth.
Biblicist: Do you believe dying infants and those possessing limited mental abilities from childhood are saved or lost? If saved, who is the messenger of the gospel to them or is the gospel even applicable to them?
Biblicist: Do you believe the word of God came back void "in those who perish" in 2 Cor. 2:15? Do you believe the word came to those "who perish" in 2 Cor. 2:15 not merely in "word only" "but also in power and in the holy Spirit and in much assurance" (1 Thes. 1:5)?
Biblicist: In 1 Thessalonians 1:5 why is there a contrast between the negative phrase "came NOT in word only" and the positive phrase of contrast "BUT ALSO [alla kai] in power and in the Holy Spirit" if the Word always comes in that way?
HP: I believe they are neither saved nor unsaved. They are not even moral agents. I do believe that all such as you mentioned will be in heaven with the Lord, but I do not know or understand in what capacity.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Heavenly Pilgrim http://www.baptistboard.com/showthread.php?p=1754207#post1754207
The Word of God is never devoid of the Spirit of God. "My Word will not return to me void." Whatever the means used, if one is saved it is via the empowement of the Holy Spirit as the Word is set forth.
HP: It will not return to Him void. It will stand for eternity justifying God for His actions concerning those that turned a deaf ear and an unwilling unyieiding heart. They heard the truth, even though in some measure, yet they would not obey.
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HP: It simply magnifies the power that is associated with God's Word on hearers with willing hearts and minds. What can fall as dead letter upon a heart bent on selfishness, falls as a powerful life changing force on those with a heart of repentance and a will set on obedience towards God's commands.
Biblicist: Could the condition of "unwillingness" be the actual state/nature of all fallen mankind? Hence, they cannot because they will not and they will not because they "love darkness' and "hate the light"? Isn't this the real "heart" of the problem with all lost men (Ezek. 36:26)?