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Does Your Church practice James regarding confession of sins and healing?

Ben1445

Active Member
This is not how it works. Can't just put the same word from same translated source word every time.
Explain please. I don’t know what this is supposed to mean.
If you have a problem with what I said, “nope” is not an answer. You are going to have to explain what and why you believe it is different. Without some explanation, we can say yep, and nope all day and get nowhere.
 

Ben1445

Active Member
This is not how it works. Can't just put the same word from same translated source word every time.
Are you saying that you are not allowed to use them twice the same way? If you can’t look at how the words are used by translators to understand how they are used in a language that you don’t know well, why would the translators use the words that they did? They certainly were not writing a different Bible. They are not translating new meanings into the Bible.
When a word is used, one would expect for clarity that the meaning of a word does not change during its use. If a word is translated trespass, I expect that is what it means. I have the same ability with the word know to understand its use the same way each time it is translated from a particular Greek word. There are only a few who agree with me on this point because the minds of most people leap to a different subject that is able to be included in the context knowledge rather than relationship. I find that Scripture was intended to be clear and does not require a person to draw different interpretations and definitions all the time.
So when trespass and fault are translations from the same word, I read them as synonyms and understand more about their use. When I read two different words in the Greek that are translated into what I consider to be synonymous with each and even sometimes the same word, I look and see what the difference is between the Greek words.
I don’t see any contradiction in looking at these verses this way. If you do, please explain.
 
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