Not clear at all, and you have avoided the issue I raise about drawing the line due to bias.
"Appealling to authority" is a logical fallacy.
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No, an appeal to an authority is not a logical fallacy. The actual logical fallacy is a "faulty appeal to authority." An appeal to an authority within the framework of that authority's expertise is not a fallacy. See
this link and
this link for more details. It is right to appeal to an authority, it is wrong to appeal to someone as an authority with no expertise in that area.
Are you, or are you not saying that you would support a moral law, established by the government, against your neighbors child being allowed to do whatever with there body?! You continue to avoid the issue of whether or not you would ever support civil morals laws! You are simply dancing around the issue (my contention) with smoke screens; another logical fallacy!
I am saying that the moral law in the case of homosexuality and lying (where there is no loss) is under the realm of church government and family government, not state government. I am not avoiding the issue. If you read my post, I pointed out several times that this is not the area where state government has authority, but family government and church government does have authority. There was no dancing around the issue.
In a previous post, I outlined where the state's role began. It begins at a loss. Thus, I outlined that lying, while a violation of the moral law, is not illegal unless it causes someone a loss based upon that law. I explained that just because someone breaks the moral law, does not make it a state issue, there must be a loss to the party involved or a threat to a person.
My question to you, because you have not put forth a philosophy of government, should we prosecute all liars? SHould it be illegal to lie? Or, would you agree with me that just lying is not a cause to call it illegal behavior?
You want me to come out and say that "all of the moral law is outside the state government." HOwever, I can't because some moral law fits into my category of what falls into the state. For example, Adultery is a violation of an established covenant. Government is charged with keeping contracts. Therefore the spouse of the adulterer would have rights to sue in court for adultery.
My illustration clearly nails your philosophy to the wall and exposes your bias in the matter.
I strongly disagree. You have offered no philosophy on the other side and your illustration misunderstands the three governmental roles. I think you are over your head in this discussion and have no idea what you are talking about. A good book to begin with is "The Church" by Dr. Clowney. I do not think you really read my statement because you offer no rebuttals to them, rather you just say "I nailed your bias." That is not only irrational, it fails to engage in a rational manner. Oh, you called what I did a logical fallacy, but it was not.
Show me where my thoughts are wrong. That you have not done, you just stereotyped my arguments. Engage them instead of appealing to your own logical fallacy called
Simply part of your smokescreen which avoids the issue of my contention. I assure those same theologians have a line to draw when voting on moral issues.
There is no smokescreen. You have not engaged my posts, you simply call it names. That is, my friend, poor debate tactics and calling the posts names without interacting with the post and showing it's errors in detail, is beneath you.
In my posts I have explained the following:
- When a state should make things legal and illegal
- The three different forms of government
- where each of the three forms of government have their authority
- why the state has no authority in private issues
- why the family has their authority in moral and private issues
- why states have no authority to overstep their bounds
- why something can be immoral but still legal
I addressed your issues. You just refuse to read or interact with the issues in my posts or you just don't understand.