Bluejayy: The KJV translators did know what they were doing when they put the word "Easter" in the Bible. Let me try to explain:
Actually, they DIDN'T; they goofed. Let ME explain:
The Greek word which is translated "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is the word "pascha"...
Which was coined from the Hebrew 'pesach', which means 'Passover' & nothing else. In Luke's day, 'pascha' meant 'pesach/Passover' and nothing else.(The word"Passover" for this observance was coined by Tyndale in the 1520s & has now been universally accepted in English.) Any translation should reflect LUKE'S thoughts, not those of the translators.
In EVERY other instance in which pascha occurred in the Greek mss translated by the AV men, they used 'Passover'. They had no valid reason to render it differently in this one instance.
Coming to the word "Easter" in God's Authorized Bible,
It's NOT "God's Authorized Bible". It was authorized by King James I of England & Scotland. There's not the slightest hint in Scripture, nor in the words of the AV translators themselves that GOD authorized it.
BTW, the AV was the SECOND authorized English version; the FIRST was the "Great Bible" of 1539, authorized, and indeed, requested to be made, by Henry VIII.
some people seize upon it imagining that they have found proof that the Bible is not perfect.
This particular translation ISN'T perfect.
Well, I believe that it is perfect.
Then, in the face of its PROVEN booboos, you believe incorrectly.
Easter, as we know it,comes from the ancient pagan festival of Astarte(also known as Ishtar). This festival, as we know, was in April. It was a celebration of the earth "regenerating" itself after the winter season. This festival involved a celebration of reproduction.For this reason the common symbols of Easter is the "rabbit" and the "egg".Both are known for their reproductive abilities.
At the center of attention was Astarte, the female deity. She is known in the Bible as the "queen of heaven"(Jer.7:18;44:17-25). She is the mother of Tammuz(Ez.8:14).These rituals would take place at sunrise on Easter morning (Ez.8:13-16). From the referances in Jeremiah and Ezekiel,we can see that the true Easter has never had any association with Jesus Christ.
However, the worship of Ishtar had long-since vanished from the Judea area, having been replaced in turn by "Queen of heaven(Chaldean-the planet Venus), Mazda(Persians), Pallas Athene(Greeks), and Minerva(Romans). Easter as we know it was NOT observed any earlier than C. 155 AD, and it was NOT called Easter until Constantine's time, the late 300s AD. You can verify this from any of several good reference works.
PROBLEM: Even though the Jewish passover was held in mid April (the fourteenth or Fifteenth) and the pagan festival Easter was held later the same month,how do we know that Herod was referring to Easter and not the Jewish passover?
How do we know? Easy...First, Herod wasn't referring to ANYTHING in Scripture; the words are LUKE'S, & Luke was referring to Herod's intent. THIS Herod was trying to PLEASE the jewish leadership; Nero had deposed his predecessor for DISpleasing the Jews, causing them to rebel. When this Herod saw killing James had PLEASED the Jews, he sought to please them even more by delivering peter unto them. However, he had arrested Peter during Passover, and intended to hold him until Passover had ended. To say Herod was observing some pagan Easter is poppycock, not supported whatsoever by history. Actually, he was respecting the Jewish Passover, knowing the Jews wouldn't wanna fool with Peter until after Passover.
I've taken the liberty of sending you a little study I wrote, by this board's private messenger service, PROVING, from the King James version, that the whole week of Unleavened Bread is Passover, NOT just the paschal lamb meal. Thus, Herod's intent should be as clear to YOU as it was for LUKE.
If Herod was referring to the passover, the translation of"pascha" as "Easter" is incorrect.
It IS incorrect.
If Herod was indeed referring to the pagan holiday, then the KJV must truly be the VERY word and words of God for it is the only Bible in print today which has the correct reading.
Actually, it's the only English version still in common use that has the INCORRECT reading.
If you wish to discuss the matter further, especially the KJVO myth in general, please post in the "versions" forum, as that's where this type of discussion belongs.
BTW, I'm no professor...I'm a STEELWORKER. If one such as I can easily figure this out, YOU should see the light quite easily. Hope to "see" ya in tne "versions' forum!
Meanwhile, I thought it necessary to answer the Easter thingy here lest some of our brethren be deceived by the KJVO schmoozemeisters.
Actually, they DIDN'T; they goofed. Let ME explain:
The Greek word which is translated "Easter" in Acts 12:4 is the word "pascha"...
Which was coined from the Hebrew 'pesach', which means 'Passover' & nothing else. In Luke's day, 'pascha' meant 'pesach/Passover' and nothing else.(The word"Passover" for this observance was coined by Tyndale in the 1520s & has now been universally accepted in English.) Any translation should reflect LUKE'S thoughts, not those of the translators.
In EVERY other instance in which pascha occurred in the Greek mss translated by the AV men, they used 'Passover'. They had no valid reason to render it differently in this one instance.
Coming to the word "Easter" in God's Authorized Bible,
It's NOT "God's Authorized Bible". It was authorized by King James I of England & Scotland. There's not the slightest hint in Scripture, nor in the words of the AV translators themselves that GOD authorized it.
BTW, the AV was the SECOND authorized English version; the FIRST was the "Great Bible" of 1539, authorized, and indeed, requested to be made, by Henry VIII.
some people seize upon it imagining that they have found proof that the Bible is not perfect.
This particular translation ISN'T perfect.
Well, I believe that it is perfect.
Then, in the face of its PROVEN booboos, you believe incorrectly.
Easter, as we know it,comes from the ancient pagan festival of Astarte(also known as Ishtar). This festival, as we know, was in April. It was a celebration of the earth "regenerating" itself after the winter season. This festival involved a celebration of reproduction.For this reason the common symbols of Easter is the "rabbit" and the "egg".Both are known for their reproductive abilities.
At the center of attention was Astarte, the female deity. She is known in the Bible as the "queen of heaven"(Jer.7:18;44:17-25). She is the mother of Tammuz(Ez.8:14).These rituals would take place at sunrise on Easter morning (Ez.8:13-16). From the referances in Jeremiah and Ezekiel,we can see that the true Easter has never had any association with Jesus Christ.
However, the worship of Ishtar had long-since vanished from the Judea area, having been replaced in turn by "Queen of heaven(Chaldean-the planet Venus), Mazda(Persians), Pallas Athene(Greeks), and Minerva(Romans). Easter as we know it was NOT observed any earlier than C. 155 AD, and it was NOT called Easter until Constantine's time, the late 300s AD. You can verify this from any of several good reference works.
PROBLEM: Even though the Jewish passover was held in mid April (the fourteenth or Fifteenth) and the pagan festival Easter was held later the same month,how do we know that Herod was referring to Easter and not the Jewish passover?
How do we know? Easy...First, Herod wasn't referring to ANYTHING in Scripture; the words are LUKE'S, & Luke was referring to Herod's intent. THIS Herod was trying to PLEASE the jewish leadership; Nero had deposed his predecessor for DISpleasing the Jews, causing them to rebel. When this Herod saw killing James had PLEASED the Jews, he sought to please them even more by delivering peter unto them. However, he had arrested Peter during Passover, and intended to hold him until Passover had ended. To say Herod was observing some pagan Easter is poppycock, not supported whatsoever by history. Actually, he was respecting the Jewish Passover, knowing the Jews wouldn't wanna fool with Peter until after Passover.
I've taken the liberty of sending you a little study I wrote, by this board's private messenger service, PROVING, from the King James version, that the whole week of Unleavened Bread is Passover, NOT just the paschal lamb meal. Thus, Herod's intent should be as clear to YOU as it was for LUKE.
If Herod was referring to the passover, the translation of"pascha" as "Easter" is incorrect.
It IS incorrect.
If Herod was indeed referring to the pagan holiday, then the KJV must truly be the VERY word and words of God for it is the only Bible in print today which has the correct reading.
Actually, it's the only English version still in common use that has the INCORRECT reading.
If you wish to discuss the matter further, especially the KJVO myth in general, please post in the "versions" forum, as that's where this type of discussion belongs.
BTW, I'm no professor...I'm a STEELWORKER. If one such as I can easily figure this out, YOU should see the light quite easily. Hope to "see" ya in tne "versions' forum!
Meanwhile, I thought it necessary to answer the Easter thingy here lest some of our brethren be deceived by the KJVO schmoozemeisters.