I am sorry Bro John, but I cannot see any other understanding than that, apart to impose a pre conceived idea.
I spent 3 hours this morning reading commentaries, and 99% of the futurist ones said pretty much, verse 27 has happened yet, so it must be a future antichrist, or they just said this is referring to the antichrist. They have no idea where they get that idea, one even said the semi colon introduces the pause in time. Sure i think that to be true, but its a cause and effect thing, Jesus was cut off so the city and sanctuary were to be destroyed, the second temple, not an imaginary 3rd.
But the sacrifice did not cease. The sacrifices continued until the temple was destroyed in AD 70.
Hebrew verb for "cease" (shabath") is here used with
the hiphil stem. The hiphil stem can be causative action,, That is why "
he shall cause" is including in some translations.
It was the Romans who ended the sacrificial system of the Jewish religionwhen they destroyed the Temple. While that destruction of the Temple did not occur until 70 A.D., the actual process of starting destruction of the city and the Temple was when Jesus was Crucified in the middle of His 7-year ministry.
In other words, This does not imply Jesus himself actually did the ceasing but was the cause of the ceasing.
So to each his own understanding I guess.
And if you Judaism Jew, the prophecy isn't about Jesus anyways in their translation. So If we get into Hebrew Grammar and what not, anything is possible.