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ESV?

Discussion in 'Bible Versions & Translations' started by Baptist4life, Nov 6, 2021.

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  1. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    Read my thread
     
  2. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    since I like reading I will read it. Which link are you referring to?
     
  3. Conan

    Conan Well-Known Member

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  4. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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  5. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    See #27
     
  6. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    In Dean Burgon's book The Revision Revised he writes in Latin (p.483). The English translation would be : "If so few manuscripts are sufficient to establish such illegitimate readings, one can oppose so many weighty things (both of evidence and of arguments), that obviously nothing will be left in the serious matter of a true and a false standard, and the text of the New Testament in general will be entirely uncertain and doubtful."
     
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  7. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    This has been pointed out. Greek grammar is not even relevant to whether or not a word is included in the Greek.
     
  8. RipponRedeaux

    RipponRedeaux Well-Known Member

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    Did you know that the Modern Language Bible which was published in 1969, has more inclusive language than the ESV?
     
  9. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    I skimmed through it what you have yet to deal with is the fact that your rendering does not show up until the 1500s and is mostly in marginal notes.
     
  10. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    shows your acute lack of understanding of Greek grammar!

    God the Holy Spirit is the Author of the Holy Bible, and not humans. There can be no problems with the Greek grammar because of this fact. It is very clear to those who can grasp Greek grammar (which seems not many on here!), they will see that the grammar of this passage demands that the words, "μαρτυροῦντες ἐν τῷ οὐρανῷ, ὁ πατὴρ ὁ λόγος καὶ τὸ ἅγιον πνεῦμα, καὶ οὗτοι οἱ τρεῖς ἕν εἰσιν", are all part of the Original text.

    Regardless of what the Likes of Wallace and Metzger might say, as they are very much wrong here!
     
  11. SavedByGrace

    SavedByGrace Well-Known Member

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    when you understand Greek grammar, read again what I have written, and you might just understand. It is clear that at the present, you do not understand Greek grammar, or else you could not write silly comments as this!
     
  12. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    [/ Quote] Why does it not show up until the 1500s? Why do you shirk away from that?
     
  13. 37818

    37818 Well-Known Member

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    1 John 5:6, ". . . And it is the Spirit that beareth witness, because the Spirit is truth. . . ." is being referred to as the witness of God in 1 John 5:9-10, ". . . If we receive the witness of men, the witness of God is greater: . . . He that believeth on the Son of God hath the witness in himself: . . ." The gloss of the 1 John 5:7 add "witness . . . in heaven . . ." is in error.
     
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  14. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    The NKJV is to be preferred over the deeply flawed ESV. Take a look at Revelation 13:8. The ESV deliberately mistranslated the verse, changing "from or since" the foundation of the world to read "before." That should tell you all you need to know, they alter the text to conform to man-made doctrine.
     
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  15. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    That "man made" doctrine you refer to holds up even the way the NKJV translates it so I'm not really sure what your complaint is.
     
  16. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Words have meaning. "Apo" means out of or out from and points to origin. From or since the foundation of the world refers to the interval since creation, not before creation. Honest and accurate translations are to be preferred over those that alter the translation to harmonize with man-made doctrine.
     
  17. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    It is the same Van. It points to a singular point in time before you and I were born, before Paul was born, before all of us were born that God chose. Period. It changes nothing no matter how ridiculous of an argument you want to make about it because you don't like the truth of it.
     
  18. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Utter nonsense, arguing over absurdity for the purpose of obfuscation. Since the foundation of the world does not point only to a time before you and I were born, it includes now and to the end of the age!!!

    The level of ignorance among the naysayers is manifest, folks. Accordingly they hurl false charges like "you don't like the truth of it."
     
  19. Reformed1689

    Reformed1689 Well-Known Member

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    Nope. You are wrong Van and you always dig yourself a hole.

    67.131 ἐκl; ἀπόh: markers of the extent of time from a point in the past—‘since, from.’
    ἐκl: εἶδεν ἄνθρωπον τυφλὸν ἐκ γενετῆς ‘he saw a man who had been blind from birth’ Jn 9:1.
    ἀπόh: ἐσώθη ἡ γυνὴ ἀπὸ τῆς ὥρας ἐκείνης ‘the woman became well from that moment’ Mt 9:22; τρίτην ταύτην ἡμέραν ἄγει ἀφ̓ οὗ ταῦτα ἐγἐνετο ‘this is now the third day since these things happened’ Lk 24:21.
    Johannes P. Louw and Eugene Albert Nida, Greek-English Lexicon of the New Testament: Based on Semantic Domains (New York: United Bible Societies, 1996), 645.
     
  20. Van

    Van Well-Known Member
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    Can you believe this idiotic argument. Did I say the interval did not start in the past? Nope.
    Obfuscation on display. Did this "scholar" say when the interval ended? Nope
    Obfuscation on display.

    Here is what I actually said, "Since the foundation of the world does not point only to a time before you and I were born, it includes now and to the end of the age!!!"

    The ESV is deeply flawed as demonstrated by the deliberate mistranslation of Revelation 13:8.
     
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