Since C (the NKJV) agrees with the NIV here (A), then you somehow are saying that the ESV (B) is less literal and somehow less faithful in its rendering?17:8
A : Upright men
B : The upright
C. Upright men
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Since C (the NKJV) agrees with the NIV here (A), then you somehow are saying that the ESV (B) is less literal and somehow less faithful in its rendering?17:8
A : Upright men
B : The upright
C. Upright men
Marginally so. It's stated translational methodology is different from its actual practice which is very much like the NIV.Esv ha sa more formal translation philosophy than Niv, correct?
Don't be shy, be specific. Name them.There are several portions of Scripture where changing the singular to a plural obscures a possible reference to the Lord Jesus Christ.
Please point out what you are referencing in Ps. 24.Psalm 24 is an obvious example, but there are others.
What in the world are you talking about? The ESV is doing no such capitulation. You yourselfFinally, by capitulating to the feminist lobby,
That's just plain stupid.Here in the U.S. some of our Top Divinty schools are now requiring God to be refered to in neutral pronouns.
I say balderdash to that notion.Just as matter of time before gender neutral language of God hits a major translation.
No; exactly the opposite. The NKJV places 'men' in italics to show that it is not in the text. Therefore the ESV, which avoids saying 'men' altogether may be the best rendering. But frankly, any of them are OK.Since C (the NKJV) agrees with the NIV here (A), then you somehow are saying that the ESV (B) is less literal and somehow less faithful in its rendering?
Don't be shy, be specific. Name them.
I didn't say it is.What in the world are you talking about? The ESV is doing no such capitulation. You yourself
said you had no problem with any of the renderings.
Well I didn't want to wander of the subject too far. But since you ask, here is something I wrote a few years ago which expresses my translation philosophy. The mention of Psalm 24 is about two thirds of the way down. I also mention the problem of the gratuitous use of the plural in Hebrews 2:5-9.Please point out what you are referencing in Ps. 24.
Your inane remarks about "capitulating to the feminist lobby" is, well, inane. The more you say those kinds of things about solidly conservative translations -- the more shame you bring upon your head.I didn't say it is.
Your gratuitous use of gratuitous is grating.Well I didn't want to wander of the subject too far. But since you ask, here is something I wrote a few years ago which expresses my translation philosophy. The mention of Psalm 24 is about two thirds of the way down. I also mention the problem of the gratuitous use of the plural in Hebrews 2:5-9.
https://marprelate.wordpress.com/2014/03/24/the-f-i-e-c-and-the-n-i-v-2011/
Just not as much into the inclusive issues. correct?Marginally so. It's stated translational methodology is different from its actual practice which is very much like the NIV.
Your gratuitous use of gratuitous is grating.Well I didn't want to wander of the subject too far. But since you ask, here is something I wrote a few years ago which expresses my translation philosophy. The mention of Psalm 24 is about two thirds of the way down. I also mention the problem of the gratuitous use of the plural in Hebrews 2:5-9.
https://marprelate.wordpress.com/2014/03/24/the-f-i-e-c-and-the-n-i-v-2011/
So you have no have no rebuttal of my article and therefore resort to gratuitous insult.Your gratuitous use of gratuitous is grating.
I agree with the people who disagreed with your ideas : cmain and Ian.
Your inane remarks about "capitulating to the feminist lobby" is, well, inane. The more you say those kinds of things about solidly conservative translations -- the more shame you bring upon your head.
Rippon just refuses to see that the 2011 Niv made a good translation worse![/QUOTE]So you have no have no rebuttal of my article and therefore resort to gratuitous insult.
No problem.
I asked the above in post 20, but MM is hesitant to reply.MM: You forgot to prove that any of the above renderings in the NIV here were not as literal as the ESV.
See my post #12.I asked the above in post 20, but MM is hesitant to reply.
We already have the Queen James version, so the nxt one will be the Mary to Michael edition!
And dotake exception when New iv seem to trat son of a as not referring to Jesus, more to generic Mankind!
See my post #12.MM, you forgot to prove that any of the 14 examples I gave from the 84 were not as literal as the ESV.
You are probably as hard of hearing as you are at have difficulty understanding plain English.See my post #12.
That version is not the subject of this thread as I have said time and again.[/QUOTE]Rippon just refuses to see that the 2011 Niv made a good translation worse!
He already answered you!You are probably as hard of hearing as you are at have difficulty understanding plain English.
In post 12 you merely recorded that four ESV verse snips were closer to the language of the NKJV.
I had cited 14 passages. You have ignored the bulk of them and barely tried to answer my initial question.
Give it another go.
(By the way, the current NIV has the same wording as the ESV in 16:11, 17:8 and 19:14)