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Flaws found in NIV
- Thread starter Van
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No, you are trying to deny Paul's words and meaning.
He does not call them men of flesh, he speaks to them as if they were men of flesh.
More absurdity, more posting in Greek, more obfuscation.
Note he is not even trying to address the meaning of the verse.
You can't read English?
Note the effort to change the subject to my qualifications. All these guys post the same twaddle.
People without the Spirit, people of flesh, can understand spiritual milk, that is why Paul spoke to the babes in Christ as if they were without the Spirit with spiritual milk.
[QUOTE="Van, post: 2521902, member: 10696".]
Your effort to deny the obvious is absurd. 1 Cor. 3:1-2 clearly teaches men without the Spirit can understand spiritual milk.[/QUOTE]
Where does Paul says that? Where does Paul address lost people in this passage? He doesn't.
Paul address them in the next chapter, where he says "The natural person does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are folly to him, and he is not able to understand them because they are spiritually discerned"
Does Paul says they are able to understand?
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Your effort to deny the obvious is absurd. 1 Cor. 3:1-2 clearly teaches men without the Spirit can understand spiritual milk.[/QUOTE]
Where does Paul says that? Where does Paul address lost people in this passage? He doesn't.
Paul address them in the next chapter, where he says "The natural person does not accept the things of the Spirit of God, for they are folly to him, and he is not able to understand them because they are spiritually discerned"
Does Paul says they are able to understand?
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Where does Paul says that? Where does Paul address lost people in this passage? He doesn't.[/quote] He spoke to the babes in Christ as to men of flesh.
No, he stated that they were walking in the flesh and not in the Holy Spirit, as all of the saved do whenever we sin!
So the babes in Christ are lost?
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Yes, as Paul was adressing t
I am typing in English, am I not?
You dedicated this thread to telling everyone how the NIV mistranslated the original language. If you can't read it, how can you correct it?
One would logical assume you could read greek if you are telling other who to read it.
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Obfuscation on display
OK, so you agree, Paul spoke to babes in Christ as if they were without the Spirit using milk, proving men of flesh can understand spiritual milk.
He spoke to the babes in Christ as if they did not have the spirit or ;had not yet learned from the spirit. So simple a child could understand.
Nothing about you statement is logical.
You might as well say Paul spoke to Christisns behaving badly so that proves dogs go to Heaven. You are conflating two things unrelated. Paul does not address unbelievers understand here. He does later in chapter 2, where he says the cannot understand.
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Did I say I was conversant in Greek? Nope
Did you present the word in Greek without providing the verse? Yes.
What does that make you?
Folks, all these efforts to change the subject are to deny the obvious, 1 Corinthians 3:1-2 presents the truth lost people can understand the milk of the gospel.
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