Is it being suggested that it is unimportant for translations to be understandable by present typical readers?
No, but since the KJV IS very understandable to present typical readers, it is a non-issue.
The KJV also removed or no longer used some words that would not be considered archaic today.
Of course, why wouldn't they.
The KJV was officially a revision of the Bishops' Bible. Here are some examples of how the KJV translators made simpler, updated, or revised a number of renderings in that Bishops' Bible.
Officially, it was an entirely New Translation: Someone, somewhere, found one or more historical statements that imply this somehow, and they then ignore all other Historical realities about KJV, How it was Translated, What they used et. al. It was a New Translation, not merely an update.
Are some KJV-only advocates suggesting that the KJV translators were wrong to update and make simpler many renderings in some of the pre-1611 English Bibles?
Are they? Why not post a statement by a KJVO on this thread bearing that suggestion.
If the words in the KJV are so understandable, why do even KJV-only authors disagree about the meaning of some of them?
flagon
bravery
target
coney
These are issues any author using any Translation will have to deal with....Could you explain how this has any bearing on the topic at all? If the Hebrew word is difficult to Translate into English or not easily understood, it is an issue for any author using ANY Translation.....If you think about it, if some post-modern translator for instance were to merely confidently place
HIS interpretation of how one of these words ought to be translated....and then he be mistaken....Then incidentally, a non-KJV user would not have known that the definition of a particular word were even in dispute no?
initially posted by Salty But to the ultra KJO - it is doctrine
Yes, I used to be one meself.....I grew out of the insanity of it once I was forced to grow up a little and actually think about it.
IMHO you are not KJO - you would actually be KJP (preferred)
I think most here would use that definition: at least
vis a vis the description on the moderator's thread....but I am a KJVP who throws up in his mouth a little whenever he hears or reads any modern versions LOL...It is something I
"BELIEVE" In the sense that I would suggest that others
OUGHT to think as I do and they
OUGHT to be KJV as well. I just realize that (strictly speaking) it is not a matter of Theology, and not an issue of doctrine.
Yes, it is a good translation - but would you agree it is not a perfect translation (ultra KJO would say it is a perfect translation)
I would not say it is perfect...Do I think it is as close as anyone has ever come? Yes...Do I think anyone has ever re-translated as well as KJV? No. Do I think anyone ever will? Not holding my breath...I sorta think the KJV had to incorporate a "Persian Flaw" as it were:tongue3: