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Featured "given" is inclusive of "draw" in John 6

Discussion in 'Calvinism & Arminianism Debate' started by The Biblicist, Jan 22, 2014.

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  1. convicted1

    convicted1 Guest

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    God's foreknowledge isn't equal to man's. God's foreknowledge is based on what He decreed.


    They were chosen by God by sanctification AND belief of the truth. They were sanctified...set aside...by God.

    No, God chose us before/from the foundation of the world. They only thing we choose is sin. God changes our desires that we then choose Him.



    See above comment...

    Calvinism is very true....

    Exactly. They which are truly saved will never die lost. They are firmly in His grasp, their names engravened in His hands because they are His.

    Brother, Calvinism isn't what you think it is. I honestly thought I knew. I thought I had it by the "short hairs". But I found out I wasn't within 1,000 miles of what it actually teaches. I used to call it a doctrine of devils, but I was the one who was wrong...
     
  2. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Finally you admit he is repeating John 6:44.

    Sorry but that is simply not true! The antecendent is the word "can" or the Greek term "dunatai" (to be able) as "no man CAN [dunati = to enable] come to me" except "it" which refers to "dunatai" (ability) is given him = ability to come.

    Quite the contrary! I am trying to prove that Christ is clearly stating that the Father NEVER drew these disciples, thus never GAVE them faith or ability to come to Christ. They were false professors from the beginning, although they heard the gospel, were persuaded mentally to confess the gospel and be baptized - false profession.
     
  3. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    Yes, but unlike you I do not isolate vs. 44 from 45 which explains HOW men are drawn, which is through the word of God which teaches the man if he sincerely hears and learns from God. God does the teaching, but the man must listen and learn.

    I disagree, Jesus is saying no man can come unless "it" were given him. And what did Jesus give them? The "words" his Father gave to him as I have repeatedly shown in John 17. This is also what is shown in John 6:45, men learn from the Father when they hear his "words". Men aren't zapped with knowledge. You weren't walking along one day and God zapped you with the gospel, you either read it in the Bible, or someone like a preacher told you the gospel from the Bible. This is how all men learn the gospel and necessary to come to Jesus. How can they believe in whom they have not heard? (Rom 10:14)



    You are not succeeding.

    Being drawn has nothing to do with being a legitimate or false disciple, being drawn is what God does. The unbeliever will resist, but the fact that he resists shows he is being drawn. This is what Stephen preached.

    Acts 7:51 Ye stiffnecked and uncircumcised in heart and ears, ye do always resist the Holy Ghost: as your fathers did, so do ye.
    52 Which of the prophets have not your fathers persecuted? and they have slain them which shewed before of the coming of the Just One; of whom ye have been now the betrayers and murderers:

    Here Stephen says the mass of Jews generally were resisting the Holy Ghost. How did they do that? They killed God's messengers who gave his "words" to the people. These prophets repeatedly came to the people and called them to turn from their sins and to trust in the "Just One", but they rebelled against God. They heard God's words, but they did not sincerely listen and learn, except for a few.

    The men in John 6 were doing the same thing, they were rebelling against God's word that was being given them by Jesus. They were absolutely being drawn, but they resisted the Holy Ghost like their fathers before them.
     
    #83 Winman, Jan 28, 2014
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  4. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    Would you care to show scripture that supports this view?


    And because they believed the truth. But God knew this before they were ever born, that is what foreknowledge is.

    I know that is what Calvinism teaches you, but it is not what the scriptures say. They scriptures show many that "gladly received his word".


    God chose us before we even existed Willis, so how could we choose ourselves?


    No, Calvinism is VERY FALSE.


    If Calvinism is true it would be impossible to "lose" someone and you know it. This shows that Jesus did not hold to Calvinism, his words do not make sense in your system.

    You still do not know Calvinism, otherwise you would recognize how contrary it is to scripture.
     
  5. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    Does God "decree blasphemy against His name"??

    Does God "decree that children be molested??""

    Does God "decree that children be burned alive as a sacrifice to Molech"?

    There is such horrible violence that is reported in the news every now and then that we cannot even bare to read, much less witness, much less be a victim of. Is it your claim that demons are under order by God to do as they do? Is HE their commander in chief? Are they simply "following orders"??

    Hopefully your defense of Calvinism will not put all this at "the decree of God".

    in Christ,

    Bob
     
  6. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    in John 6:65 Jesus is referring back to John 6:44 when he said that no man could come to him unless he were drawn by the Father only because the drawing is precursor to the giving in that progression.

    God draws all - but all do not come to Christ so all are not given. Thus in 6:64 we have the foreknowledge of God as the context for 6:65.

    God foreknows who will see, and believe, and come to Christ and be taught of God.



    Jhn 6:63 It is the spirit that quickeneth; the flesh profiteth nothing: the words that I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.
    64 But there are some of you that believe not. For Jesus knew from the beginning who they were that believed not, and who should betray him.
    65 And he said, Therefore said I unto you,that no man can come unto me, except it were given unto him of my Father.

    Those "given to Christ" are in that highly qualified list even by Calvinist standards.

    Those lost to whom it is "given by the Father" - are also in that highly qualified list - according to Calvinism. The question is do Arminians view that as the highly qualified list - or as the more general case where we have the "drawing of ALL mankind".

    in Christ,

    Bob
     
  7. convicted1

    convicted1 Guest

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    Here's the thing, Brother Bob, nothing is beyond His control. God does not approve of rape, murder, incest/molesting, stealing, beating, lying, etc. Yet, He has allowed it all to go on even to this day. If He wanted to, He could stop it thisquick, yet He's chosen to let it go rampant. If He did not stop it from coming to fruition, then He has decreed it to come to pass, whether it is by an active decree...pushing it along...or passive decree...allowing it to happen w/o stopping it.
     
  8. convicted1

    convicted1 Guest

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    Bumping again to hopefully get a response.....
     
  9. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    Matt 24 "THIS Gospel shall be preached in all the world and THEN shall the end come"

    There is a specific form of the Gospel - the one being preached by Christ in Matt 24 that will go to all the world and when that happens - the world ends.

    But then there is the "DRAWING of aLL" which is not limited to "a certain degree of knowledge". It is work done as a benefit of the Gospel but is not a "Complete Gospel information packet" that goes to all. Rather it is the work of the Holy Spirit in "convicting the WORLD of sin and righteousness and judgment" John 16 - and they are then 'Without excuse' who reject the teaching of the Holy Spirit.

    Those without Bible information can still respond "instinctively" as we are told in Rom 2:13-16 "instinctively doing the works of the law, showing the law written on their heart" -- which is done only by the Holy Spirit under the New Covenant.

    in Christ,

    Bob
     
  10. convicted1

    convicted1 Guest

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    Has everyone that has ever been born since Christ's ascension heard the name of Jesus Christ?
     
  11. BobRyan

    BobRyan Well-Known Member

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    I don't think they have. Certainly most of the saints before the time of Christ never heard the name "Jesus" or "Jesus Christ of Nazareth" etc.

    It is not the "information packet" -- it is the Holy Spirit that saves which is why we have the statement in Rom 2:13-16 about those who are saved who never got the info packet.

    in Christ,

    Bob
     
  12. convicted1

    convicted1 Guest

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    How can they know/believe in whom they've never heard about?
     
  13. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    In Verse 45a Christ provides Scriptural support for his statement in verse 44. He is referring to Isaiah 54:13 and Jeremiah 31:33-34 and the "ALL" who are "children of God" under the New Covenant both Jews and Gentiles and thus the very same "all" which were given by the Father to the Son in John 6:37-39 or "the children of God" consisting of both Jews and Gentile elect. The words "all shall be taught" is equal to "except the Father draw him" and is scripturally confined by Christ to only those "children of God" under the new covenant. Again, Jeremiah 31:33-34 is quoted by the writer of Hebrews and defined as the New Covenant under which Post-Pentecost elect are saved.

    So the "all" of John 6:45a is the very same "all" of John 6:37-39 and NONE of them fail to come as "all" of them are drawn.

    Finally, both the hearing and learning in John 6:45 is INTERNAL and effectual as those in John 6:64 EXTERNALLY heard and learned and came to Christ WITHOUT BEING DRAWN BY THE FATHER (v. 65) demonstrating there is a vast distinction between being EXTERNALLY drawn by the gospel and INTERNALLY drawn by the Father as they are not the same.



    It does not matter if you disagree or not as it does not change the grammatical and LOGICAL structure of the verse. It is inability that keeps them from coming and it is God that gives "it" or else they will never come.

    "It" is SINGULAR and "words" are PLURAL and a basic grammatical rule is that the antecedent MUST harmonize in NUMBER. The only exception is if a singular is used that is grammatically inclusive of a plurality as in the term "church" or "elect" or any other singular noun that is inclusive of a plural number. Jesus did not use the singular "word" but "words" and so you interpetation is simply false.

    It is not only logically and grammatically false that "it" (v. 65) refers to "words" (v. 63) but Jesus is explicitly contrasting "the flesh" versus "the spirit" in verse 63 or EXTERNAL versus INTERNAL responses to the gospel. Those in verse 64 EXTERNALLY heard and learned the words of the gospel and made their profession based upon that EXTERNAL operation of the gospel, thus coming in "word only" but WERE NEVER DRAWN INTERNALLY BY THE FATHER (v. 65). They heard, learned and responded according to THE FLESH. The gospel came to them in "word only" but not "IN POWER and IN THE SPIRIT and IN MUCH ASSURANCE" (1 Thes. 1:5).

    The "words" of Christ are "spirit and they are life" when used by the Father INTERNALLY but NEVER when they come merely EXTERNALLY in the flesh.
     
  14. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    Bob, you simply don't understand, accept or recognize that every single one of these evils were NECESSARILY decreed when God decreed the creation of responsible and accountable FREE will. The permission to choose evil with all of the evil consquences (which you list) was necessarily decreed by God when free will was decreed. With the creation of responsible FREE will was decreed the permission for the option to choose evil (inclusive of what that is with its consequences) there is no FREE will - period! Hence, God did decree responsible FREE will and with that decree necessarily gave permission for sin and evil to enter into His creation. However, He also decreed that such evil would be restricted within the constraints of His ultimate purpose (Psa. 76:10) so that He works "ALL THINGS" (including all evil) for the ultimate good of His people (Rom. 8;28) and His own glory.
     
  15. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    many non cal bethren mistakenly see God being Sovereign as meaning that he direct caused and determined Himself ALL things that happened, but the truth is that he determined the end results based upon BOTH what he determined directly AND working in and thru decisions and actions third parties undertake, and also that when Adam chose to sin, he brought in the curse of the creation from God, so now have 'natural disasters"...

    For did God cause hitler to be deom possessed, and try to exterminate the jewish peoples, think not, that wotk satan permitted to do that by God, but God used that to have the world grant isreal their nationhood as a direct result of the Holocaust!

    "What satan did for evil, God turned around for good!"
     
    #95 Yeshua1, Jan 28, 2014
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  16. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    If Jesus intended your interpetation he could have just as easily said, "The Father has chosen all that shall come to me." However, he did not say that did he? What he said is that "ALL the Father giveth (present tense) me SHALL (future tense) come unto me."

    Note that the verb "giveth" is PRESENT TENSE showing that this action by the Father was not before the world began but in PRESENT TIME. All who are in PRESENT TIME being given to the Son SHALL as a result come to the Son. Giving precedes coming as the future tense "shall" come is FUTURE from the present action of being given. Like it or lump it that is the grammar.

    This act of giving in PRESENT TIME that precedes coming is the act of having been drawn first in relationship to coming (Jn. 6:44 - Aorist subjunctive). That is precisely why "heard" and "learned" in verse 45 is also AORIST tense completed actions as "draw" and "heard....learned" are further definitive of what drawing includes and what it is. It is the INTERNAL work of God that is causative for coming to Christ and "EVERY MAN" thus drawn does in fact come to Christ and that is precisely why "ALL shall be taught of God" is contextually restricted to the children of God under the New Covenant (Isa. 54:13; Jer. 31:33-34; Heb. 8, 10) and NONE of this "ALL" fails to come and "ALL" who are thus "given/drawn" do in fact come.
     
  17. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    Believe its in the book of Acts, that the recorded down message is thatALl thsoe who were apointed beforehand by God unto ternal life heard the message and turned to jesus and got saved...

    Shows us that God the father had determined to save individuals from eternity past, had jesus deatha toning for them by name, and thathe electe dthem out to receive jesus from the past, but he also completed/confirmed election status by saving them right when they heard the message that day!
     
  18. Winman

    Winman Active Member

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    And if your interpretation were true, God could have easily said "all that are drawn shall come", but he didn't do that, did he?

    What is good for the goose is good for the gander.

    And you seem unable to distinguish between the words "given" and "drawn", they are not the same word, and they do not mean the same thing. They are not synonyms either.

    No, no, no. The scripture does not say that God giving these persons causes them to come. It simply says all that the Father gives Jesus shall come to him. It doesn't say why or how.

    You have a bad habit of reading into scripture what is not said. That is a recipe for error.

    Again, NO. There is nothing in this scripture to support your view here. Yes, all that the Father gives Jesus shall come to him, but it doesn't say why or how. Yes, no man can come to Jesus unless he is drawn, but it doesn't say every man drawn shall come.

    Yes, Jesus said no man can come to him unless "it" were given him, but this is clearly the word of God shown in verses 44, 63 and Jhn 17:8. You cannot show one word of scripture that says God gave them faith, but the scripture clearly says Jesus gave them the words his Father gave to him.

    You can't simply make up your own interpretations of scripture.
     
  19. Yeshua1

    Yeshua1 Well-Known Member
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    ALL whom that the death of jesus atoned for will be drawn unto him to be saved, and ALL shall come to Him, receive Him, and get saved!

    There are NO sinners that the Father gave to Jesus from eternity past that will in this present time say to him"thanks, but I decided to not be saved by you now!"
     
    #99 Yeshua1, Jan 28, 2014
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  20. The Biblicist

    The Biblicist Well-Known Member
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    What has the wording in John 6:44 have to do with the wording in John 6:37???? You are employing debated tactics, such as distraction and redirecting from the proof that your interpretation of John 6:37 is wrong to something we are not even addressing here. Why? Because your interpretation has been proven to be false and you can't respond so you distract, redirect, change the subject.

    They are NECESSARILY INCLUSIVE of each other as coming is the consequence of both. Being given by the Father necessarily includes being drawn by the Father as "no man can come" whom the Father does not draw and "ALL" those given do in fact come.

    You are ignoring and trying to distract from the fact that "draweth" is PRESENT TENSE but "shall come" is FUTURE TENSE and grammatically this demands that being given PRECEDES coming regardless of your denials. This is the grammar and you can deny it but it does not change it! You are simply wrong and too committed to irrational dogma to simply admit the grammatical facts.



    Your denial is both grammatically disproven and logically disproven!


    First, the stated GRAMMACTICAL CAUSE and only stated criteria for coming to Christ is being given by the Father, as being given is the only criteria provided for FUTURE TENSE coming. Hence, the grammatical tenses provide a LOGICAL ORDERED RELATIONSHIP between being given and shall come. This present tense giving of "all" to the Son is ALWAYS EFFECTUAL as none fail to come that are first given and thus coming is the EFFECTUAL consequence of being given and the only CRITERIA for future tense come. So you cannot HONESTLY deny that the grammatical cause for coming is found in only one stated criteria - being given - thus the ONLY stated cause for effectual coming.

    Second, verses 38-39 demands the reason for the Son coming into the world was to effectually secure God's will of purpose for eternal salvation "of all" which the Father "HATH GIVEN" the Son. He did not say the Son was sent into the world to effectually secure God's will of purpose for eternal salvation "of all" that "SHALL COME." Indeed, coming to Christ is omitted completely from verses 38-39 showing that the CAUSE for Christ coming and the CAUSE of "all" coming to Christ and the CAUSE for eternal security of "ALL" of these is due to being "given" not coming. Let this sink in! However, your theory and interpretation would demand the very opposite as you place the cause of salvation on coming rather than being given but Jesus demands the cause for eternal salvation and for him being sent into the world is found in being "given" just as this is also explicitly stated in John 17:2 where coming is completely ommitted and the cause is completely attributed to being given - "as many as the Father hath given" is the only criteria stated and given as the basis to give eternal life.

    No amount of denial or dogma or misintepreted proof texting can reverse this grammatical and expliclty stated cause is beng given for both coming to Christ, for Christ coming into the world and the absolute eternal security "of all" the Father "HATH GIVEN" (note he did not say "of all that shall come but restricts the cause to being given for coming and eternal security).
     
    #100 The Biblicist, Jan 28, 2014
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