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God, That's not fair!

BrotherJoe

New Member
BRother Skan,

I had a typo and cant edit my post. I was trying to give the example of Annanias. Scripture tells us that BEFORE Peter even preached the gospel to him he was, " A devout man, and one that feared God with all his house, which gave much alms to the people, and prayed to God alway.
3 He saw in a vision evidently about the ninth hour of the day an angel of God coming in to him, and saying unto him, Cornelius.
4 And when he looked on him, he was afraid, and said, What is it, Lord? And he said unto him, Thy prayers and thine alms are come up for a memorial before God."

He was regenerated before hearing the gospel. Later he is also called "just." Do you think the Bible would describe an unregenerate as a devout,just, alm giving, praying man and have the Lord appear to him in a vision?

Brother Joe
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
Joe,

You are messing up with semantics. Go read Calvinistic scholars and you will see that they do argue that regeneration comes before faith but they never argue that salvation does. Salvation is a process which will not be complete without faith in Christ. I know you agree with that, but your words aren't saying it.

Now about Ananias and Cornelius having faith in God even before they heard the gospel. To me those men are mere example of those who believed through the natural revelation as revealed in Romans 1. Every man has a conscience and is able to know God through what has been created. These are examples of God fearing men who did not refuse to acknowledge God as God and they were not "given over to the lust of their flesh" as many others were. No, they weren't perfect, and they certainly needed a savior but they, like Abraham, could have been declared righteous because of their faith and not because of thier works.
 

BrotherJoe

New Member
Brother Skandelon,

YOU:You are messing up with semantics. Go read Calvinistic scholars and you will see that they do argue that regeneration comes before faith but they never argue that salvation does. Salvation is a process which will not be complete without faith in Christ. I know you agree with that, but your words aren't saying it.


ME: I agree with you. Perhaps I should have more properly phrased things by saying that one is "eternally saved" from Hell before faith. This is what I meant when I use the word "eternal salvation"- that one is "saved"from hell. But, you are correct, that is not the correct definition of the word "salvation" as understood by most. Salvation, in the common usage of the phrase, is NOT complete until one has faith in Christ and even then it is STILL not completed. Our total salvation is completed when one has been totally sanctified and glorified with his new body in heaven. I think this is one point we do both agree on.

With that being said, I do not believe that this "faith" in Christ (produced in us is by the Holy Ghost) is always placed in a verbal presentation of the gospel, but rather Jesus can be revealed through the Spirit without one having heard the gospel. Babies and mentally handicaps cant even intellectually understand the gospel, yet surely I bet we would both agree they will be standing in heaven amongst us.

Brother Joe

PS- Sorry for posting again to you today, I know I said that post in "Nuts for Arminians to crack" would be my last, but I couldnt resist!! Ill slap my face...the devil made me do it! lol take care and good response in pointing out my erroneous use of semantics!
 

Ian Major

New Member
Eric said,
That [Origen's weird idea of pre-existence] is the only system in which you could truly say man was really "responsible" for being born a sinner, and thus if God refuses some or all repentance, it is quite "just".

Let me rephrase so that I may more accurately convey my meaning - man is not responsible for being born a sinner; he is responsible for BEING a sinner. To have a heart that is hostile to God is a sin, even if we are unable due to infancy to put our depraved nature into practice. Are you saying that children are sinless?


The reason why we say He must bail them out, is because this is what HE purposed according to His plan of "good will" toward all men. THEN, if they are "unwilling", they suffer the fate.

What then, for example, of all the non-Israelites from Moses onward - the Amalekites, Hittites, Philistines, etc? How many of them were saved? Did God not pass them by, leaving them to perish in their sin, without God and without hope?

In Him

Ian
 

Ian Major

New Member
Skandelon said,
Now we have to deal with interpreting Calvin's intent? great...

OK, I agree, we've been round this Jewish Hardening bush enough.

Perhaps? Is there any biblical support for your claims? How can one be more hostile to Christ than Paul was? The point of hardening was to keep them from believing and being saved before God accomplished his purposes in their unbelief and your explaination totally nullifies that purpose.

Yes - those who continue in their rebellion against their Messiah.

I don't see how permanent hardening nullifies anything. They did accomplish God's purpose.

But let me ask you to explain something in relation to God's fairness. This is not a trick question, as I am seeking to grasp how you and Eric can cope with free-willism. If God hardened the Jews until they rejected and crucified the Lord, are they guilty of this, seeing He allowed them to do nothing else? Is this not the same objection you bring against Calvinism when it has all men born guilty before God and the reprobate perishing in their sins?

In Him

Ian
 

Eric B

Active Member
Site Supporter
To have a heart that is hostile to God is a sin, even if we are unable due to infancy to put our depraved nature into practice. Are you saying that children are sinless?
No. And your rephrasing does help me understand what you meant. But still, God does not charge infants as "sinning" by just having a heart hostile to Him, based on the definitions of sin in James 4:17 and Rom. 14:23, though technically (i.e. from an adult point of view) it is "sin".
What then, for example, of all the non-Israelites from Moses onward - the Amalekites, Hittites, Philistines, etc? How many of them were saved? Did God not pass them by, leaving them to perish in their sin, without God and without hope?
Any individual could have still repented and ask God to forgive him. An example of this was that a gentile could join the nation of Israel if he was circumcised and kept the Law. Of course, it is not those works that saves them, but rather the faith it is done in, just like any Israelite that was saved.
But let me ask you to explain something in relation to God's fairness. This is not a trick question, as I am seeking to grasp how you and Eric can cope with free-willism. If God hardened the Jews until they rejected and crucified the Lord, are they guilty of this, seeing He allowed them to do nothing else? Is this not the same objection you bring against Calvinism when it has all men born guilty before God and the reprobate perishing in their sins?
Every single Jew did not crucify the Lord. The nation in general did, but once again, individuals could and did repent and not take part of that. Those who continued to reject Him, or insist on their expectations of what Messiah was about (we are the good guys, and he is to come and put all the bad guys down and make us the rulers) were the ones in danger of being "hardened" into crucifying Christ. And even then, "harden" means to strenghthen one's resolve or make them more bold to carry it out) so that people who wanted Him crucified anyway, would now have the "courage" to hand Him over, which included such acts as hypocritically pledging allegiance with the emperor. And yet still, this was not necessarily a sentence to inescapable judgment, as we see the crowd whom Peter charges with "handing Him over", repenting in Acts.
So in no case were people who were otherwise minding their own business, then taken and "made" to do this act and then denied any opportunity to escape judgment.
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
Originally posted by Ian Major:
I don't see how permanent hardening nullifies anything. They did accomplish God's purpose.
It nullifies the purpose for which the hardened occured in the first place. In your system they were in essesence born hardened and thus would have rejected Christ and had him killed even without God's judicial hardening intervening. Having them being provoked to jealousy by the Gentiles being ingrafted also makes no sense within your system. Why does Paul hope for his brothers of the flesh to be provoked to jealousy and be saved if he believed as you do that God determined that all those hardened would never believe and be saved. His entire discourse makes no sense if indeed he believed as you do. If Paul believed as you do he would have wrote,  "I ask, then, has God rejected his people, the Jews? Of course not, HE HAS ONLY REJECTED SOME OF THEM, THE NON-ELECT ONES. Remember that I myself am a Jew, a descendant of Abraham and a member of the tribe of Benjamin, AND I'M ELECT, SOME AREN'T. 2 No, God has not rejected THE ELECT ONES, whom he chose from the very beginning, BUT THE REST HE DIDN'T ELECT HE HAS REJECTED. Do you remember what the Scriptures say about this? Elijah the prophet complained to God about the people of Israel and said, 3 "Lord, they have killed your prophets and torn down your altars. I alone am left, and now they are trying to kill me, too." 4 And do you remember God's reply? He said, "You are not the only one left. I have seven thousand others who have not bowed down to Baal!" 5 It is the same today, for not all the Jews have turned away from God. A few are being saved as a result of God's kindness in choosing them. 6 And if they are saved by God's kindness, then it is not by their good works. For in that case, God's wonderful kindness would not be what it really is – free and undeserved. 7 So this is the situation: Most of the Jews have not found the favor of God they are looking for so earnestly. A few have – the ones God has chosen – but the rest were made unresponsive. 8 As the Scriptures say, "God has put them into a deep sleep. To this very day he has shut their eyes so they do not see, and closed their ears so they do not hear." 9 David spoke of this same thing when he said, "Let their bountiful table become a snare, a trap that makes them think all is well. Let their blessings cause them to stumble. 10 Let their eyes go blind so they cannot see, and let their backs grow weaker and weaker." 11 Did God's people stumble and fall beyond recovery? SOME OF THEM DID, THE HARDENED ONES! His purpose was to make his salvation available to the Gentiles, and then the ELECT ONES would be jealous and want it for themselves. 12 Now if the Gentiles were enriched because the Jews turned down God's offer of salvation, think how much greater a blessing the world will share when the UNHARDNED JEWS finally accept it. 13 I am saying all of this especially for you Gentiles. God has appointed me as the apostle to the Gentiles. I lay great stress on this, 14 for I want to find a way to make the CHOSEN UNHARDENED JEWS want what you Gentiles have, and in that way I WILL CERTAINLY save some of them."

Notice verse 14 says that they "MIGHT" be saved. You believe that this is in reference to the elect so why would Paul use "might" here? If he believed as you do would he speak about the means of jealousy being used to provoke the elect as a certainity not as a probability? You need to explain that!

But let me ask you to explain something in relation to God's fairness. This is not a trick question, as I am seeking to grasp how you and Eric can cope with free-willism. If God hardened the Jews until they rejected and crucified the Lord, are they guilty of this, seeing He allowed them to do nothing else? Is this not the same objection you bring against Calvinism when it has all men born guilty before God and the reprobate perishing in their sins?
Eric answered this well but I'll also attempt add just a note:

The objection you raise here when you write, "If God hardened the Jews until they rejected and crucified the Lord, are they guilty of this, seeing He allowed them to do nothing else?" is the very objection Paul is addressing in Romans 9. He answers this objection!!!! He does not answer the objection that Arminians raise against Calvinism which would be worded slightly different: "If God hardened all men from birth, are they guilty of this, seeing He allowed them to do nothing else?"

Do you see the difference Ian? In the first objection we are dealing with God temporarily and purposefully hardening a group of people who have already by their own "free will" rejected God's message time and time again in the face of God's patient longsuffering. In the second objection we are dealing with God choosing to harden men from birth because of Adam's sin allowing them to do nothing else but reject God's solution to their plight. There is a HUGE difference and it is in that difference that we have our dispute. Calvinists seem to be blind to that difference because they apply Paul's explainations of how God is just in temporarily hardening the Jews to support their doctrine that God had all men hardened through the fall to the point that no one is able to respond even to the powerful Holy Spirit wrought solution unless they were unconditional chosen and effectually called.

While I believe it is true that the 12 were unconditional chosen and effectually called from the already hardened Jewish nation to apostleship I do not believe all men are saved as such. To believe this would undermine the uniquness of apostolic authority which set these men apart as our authorities. Proof that God uniquely and sovereignly chooses and calls out his messengers in no way proves that he does the same with those who respond to their message. In fact, I would say it proves the opposite for why would one consider Paul an authority if he were called by the same means the rest of the believers were called?
 

Ian Major

New Member
Eric said,
Any individual could have still repented and ask God to forgive him. An example of this was that a gentile could join the nation of Israel if he was circumcised and kept the Law. Of course, it is not those works that saves them, but rather the faith it is done in, just like any Israelite that was saved.

Only those who heard of the God of Israel, e.g. Rahab. And only those who were offered repentance. All the rest perished in their sins. Paul describes the Gentiles as 'without God and without hope'. God did not grant them repentance.

Every single Jew did not crucify the Lord. The nation in general did, but once again, individuals could and did repent and not take part of that. Those who continued to reject Him, or insist on their expectations of what Messiah was about (we are the good guys, and he is to come and put all the bad guys down and make us the rulers) were the ones in danger of being "hardened" into crucifying Christ. And even then, "harden" means to strenghthen one's resolve or make them more bold to carry it out) so that people who wanted Him crucified anyway, would now have the "courage" to hand Him over, which included such acts as hypocritically pledging allegiance with the emperor. And yet still, this was not necessarily a sentence to inescapable judgment, as we see the crowd whom Peter charges with "handing Him over", repenting in Acts.
So in no case were people who were otherwise minding their own business, then taken and "made" to do this act and then denied any opportunity to escape judgment.

If this hardening was only an encouragement and each Jew was perfectly free to turn from his sin, then the cross might not have happened. The reality is that God shut these people up to their wicked nature and they were permitted to do what that nature desired to do. They could not do other than that, for their hearts desired nothing else. It would have taken God to have intervened to put another desire in their hearts, whether of fear in an unregenerate heart or repentance in a regenerated heart. That is why the cross most certainly would occur. That is why the perpetrators were guilty, even though they could do no other.

Sinners ARE 'minding the own business' when they hate God and refuse to have Him rule over them. God, when He wills, can make them do anything - by allowing them free reign to do as their nature desires. And then He is free to grant repentance to any of them or none of them, as He wills.

In Him

Ian
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
Originally posted by Ian Major:

Only those who heard of the God of Israel, e.g. Rahab.
Ian, go back and read Romans 1 and you will see that everyone is without excuse because they KNEW GOD. God has revealed himself to all nations through conscience and creation. You can argue that is not sufficient to lead one to faith in God but I don't see that supported in the text by the mere examples of all those who were "God fearers" who were not of the Jewish nation.
 

Ian Major

New Member
Skan

We've been through this hardening thing enough, for many of the points you raise here have already been answered.

However, let me deal with your take on Paul's statement.

You say Paul would have spoken precisely and clearly if he believed as I believe. That is unwarranted - throughout scripture God gives us wording that is open to dispute if taken on its own. Only by comparing Scripture with Scripture can we get to the exact meaning with certainty. Even then good Christians are often puzzled or divided among themselves.

Paul's reference to Israel in Romans 11 is not simple - it must be understood in context. for example, he says in v.7, What then? Israel has not obtained what it seeks; but the elect have obtained it, and the rest were blinded. Are the elect not Israelites? Of course they are. Paul means Israel as a whole, the nation, has not obtained salvation. Only a part of it has.

When he says 11 I say then, have they stumbled that they should fall? Certainly not! But through their fall, to provoke them to jealousy, salvation has come to the Gentiles. 12Now if their fall is riches for the world, and their failure riches for the Gentiles, how much more their fullness! is he referring to the hardened Jews or to Israel as a nation? To Israel as a nation. That is why some of them can be provoked to jealousy and be saved; that is why there will be a fulness.

Notice verse 14 says that they "MIGHT" be saved. You believe that this is in reference to the elect so why would Paul use "might" here? If he believed as you do would he speak about the means of jealousy being used to provoke the elect as a certainity not as a probability? You need to explain that!

No, I do not believe Paul refers to the elect when he says those who are my flesh . He speaks of the nation. The ones to be saved are the elect. The salvation of any Jew is a 'might' for the preacher, even Paul, but the salvation of the elect is a certainty, known to God.

The objection you raise here when you write, "If God hardened the Jews until they rejected and crucified the Lord, are they guilty of this, seeing He allowed them to do nothing else?" is the very objection Paul is addressing in Romans 9. He answers this objection!!!! He does not answer the objection that Arminians raise against Calvinism which would be worded slightly different: "If God hardened all men from birth, are they guilty of this, seeing He allowed them to do nothing else?"
Do you see the difference Ian? In the first objection we are dealing with God temporarily and purposefully hardening a group of people who have already by their own "free will" rejected God's message time and time again in the face of God's patient longsuffering. In the second objection we are dealing with God choosing to harden men from birth because of Adam's sin allowing them to do nothing else but reject God's solution to their plight. There is a HUGE difference and it is in that difference that we have our dispute. Calvinists seem to be blind to that difference because they apply Paul's explainations of how God is just in temporarily hardening the Jews to support their doctrine that God had all men hardened through the fall to the point that no one is able to respond even to the powerful Holy Spirit wrought solution unless they were unconditional chosen and effectually called.

If it were the case that this refers only to the Jews of Christ's day, the principle is still established - God has prevented men from doing anything other than sin. To say He has then extended them the opportunity to repent does not alter the moral case, the one that you use against Calvinists.

However, your assertion that it is only these Jews that are in view is false. Paul further defines who the parties are by use of his 'vessels' analogy. Romans 9: 22What if God, wanting to show His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, 23and that He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy, which He had prepared beforehand for glory, 24even us whom He called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles? One lot is made for destruction - reprobate; the other is made for glory - the elect. No matter how you turn this piece, it will not fit into your Arminian jig-saw. The vessels of wrath are not temporarily hardened Jews who may later repent; nor are the vessels of mercy non-hardened Jews who may later apostasise. Their eternal state was fixed before they were born. The vessels of wrath are the non-elect of all times and races; the vessels of mercy are the elect of all times and races.

While I believe it is true that the 12 were unconditional chosen and effectually called from the already hardened Jewish nation to apostleship I do not believe all men are saved as such. To believe this would undermine the uniquness of apostolic authority which set these men apart as our authorities. Proof that God uniquely and sovereignly chooses and calls out his messengers in no way proves that he does the same with those who respond to their message. In fact, I would say it proves the opposite for why would one consider Paul an authority if he were called by the same means the rest of the believers were called?

Again, you establish the principle against which you object when you deal with Calvinism. But maybe I mistake your position. I recall you did say something about God being free to unconditionally elect if He so desired. It's just that I can't square that with your objection to us saying that is the case for everyman.

Your objection that it would undermine Paul's apostolic authority seems pointless to me. Paul's authority does not derive from him being unconditionally elected; rather from Christ revealing Himself to him and commissioning him as an infallible witness to Himself.

In Him

Ian
 

Eric B

Active Member
Site Supporter
If this hardening was only an encouragement and each Jew was perfectly free to turn from his sin, then the cross might not have happened. The reality is that God shut these people up to their wicked nature and they were permitted to do what that nature desired to do. They could not do other than that, for their hearts desired nothing else. It would have taken God to have intervened to put another desire in their hearts, whether of fear in an unregenerate heart or repentance in a regenerated heart. That is why the cross most certainly would occur. That is why the perpetrators were guilty, even though they could do no other.

Sinners ARE 'minding the own business' when they hate God and refuse to have Him rule over them.
If it were the case that this refers only to the Jews of Christ's day, the principle is still established - God has prevented men from doing anything other than sin.
There were plenty of people who had ample time to repent, whom God "gave over" and hardened for the Cross to have been certain to occur. (And even some who participated were non-hardened enough to repent at the preaching of Peter). Your side is torn between having God "shutting" people out and "making" them do the sin, (i.e. "preventing them from doing anything else") and on the other hand, it was "their own choice" of "their own wicked nature". If it was necessary that God trap people in sin/harden them to ensure the Cross, determining before they were yet born and even did any evil that they would be ordained to such with no chance of repentance, then they were essentially minding their own business until God programmed them to do that. (i.e. it wasn't necessarily "their nature" that led them to Crucify Jesus). But no matter how you slice it, that "choice" of theirs is really something God did in them.
Romans 9: 22What if God, wanting to show His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, 23and that He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy, which He had prepared beforehand for glory, 24even us whom He called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles? One lot is made for destruction - reprobate; the other is made for glory - the elect. No matter how you turn this piece, it will not fit into your Arminian jig-saw. The vessels of wrath are not temporarily hardened Jews who may later repent; nor are the vessels of mercy non-hardened Jews who may later apostasise. Their eternal state was fixed before they were born. The vessels of wrath are the non-elect of all times and races; the vessels of mercy are the elect of all times and races.
Paul is not discussing any such two groups ("the elect and non-elect of all time"), but rather groups that one can cross out of. We all started out as "children of wrath" (and "children of the flesh" for Jews), but these same people can become saved, rather than being unconditionally preordained to wrath. This is what the chapter is talking about. Jews though they were saved by a combination of inheritance and works, but God did not "choose" them as a group for them to automatically be saved. In that natural state, they were vessels of wrath, while the Church as a group (consisting of all races, but largely gentiles, whom God was opening up to) was the group that counted, and thuis the vessels of mercy. (Many non-Calvinists do say that they cannot apostasize if they were really saved).
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
Notice verse 14 says that they "MIGHT" be saved. You believe that this is in reference to the elect so why would Paul use "might" here? If he believed as you do would he speak about the means of jealousy being used to provoke the elect as a certainity not as a probability? You need to explain that!

No, I do not believe Paul refers to the elect when he says those who are my flesh . He speaks of the nation. The ones to be saved are the elect. The salvation of any Jew is a 'might' for the preacher, even Paul, but the salvation of the elect is a certainty, known to God.
Ian, there are several points I wanted to respond to but I'm trying to narrow the scope for the sake of time...

You missed my point here. You have continually said that the hardened cannot be saved because you believe they are "reprobates." Thus, you have taken this verse in question which refers to the Jews who have not yet been saved (you call them "lost" but not "hardened") thus they would be "elect". If they aren't hardened they must be elect, right? Correct me if I'm wrong on that.

So, if Paul is speaking about elect Jews who happen to still be lost when he mentions "some" of them are "provoked to envy" and "might be saved." If only elect Jews have the chance of being provoked to salvation why would he say "might" as if it might not? And why would he say only "some" if the hardened "reprobates" aren't being included in those who might be saved?

This may be confusing so lets apply an analogy:

A teacher has many students in her class. She has determined for whatever reason that ONLY half of the class would pass her course. One of the students in the class is a teachers pet and all the students in the class are her dear friends and she finds out directly from her teacher that she plans on failing half the class and passing the other half. She knows that she and only half of her friends will pass but she is not sure who that will include, The teacher's pet writes a letter to her parents telling them that she is going to pass the class and that several others in the class have been chosen to pass as well but she is not certain which ones would pass or which ones would not. She only knows that the teacher has already made the decision and that it will not change.

Now would it make sense in this senerio for the teacher's pet to write: "I am glad that I'm the friends to all my class mates because maybe because of my friendship with them some of them might pass too?"

Of course not. She might say, "I'm glad that I'm friends to all those the teacher has already chosen so I can help them know they are going to pass."

Do you see my point? There is no room for the words "some" or "might" when you are talking about a group of people who have been determined to be saved. The words "some" or "might" only work if the author is refering to a group that contains those who might be saved and those who might not. Your interpretation doesn't allow for that. In your view the Hardened CANNOT be saved and the Elect CANNOT go without being saved. There is no "might" about it in your system. If they are meant to be "provoked to envy unto salvation" in your system it will happen, not might happen, to ALL, not some.
 

Ian Major

New Member
Skandelon said,
Ian, go back and read Romans 1 and you will see that everyone is without excuse because they KNEW GOD. God has revealed himself to all nations through conscience and creation. You can argue that is not sufficient to lead one to faith in God but I don't see that supported in the text by the mere examples of all those who were "God fearers" who were not of the Jewish nation.

These God-fearers were not heathens who had only natural revelation. They were intimately associated with Israel - they knew of the God of Israel, worshipped Him and were treated as such by the Jews. Acts 10: 22And they said, "Cornelius the centurion, a just man, one who fears God and has a good reputation among all the nation of the Jews, was divinely instructed by a holy angel to summon you to his house, and to hear words from you."

In Him

Ian
 

Ian Major

New Member
Eric said,
There were plenty of people who had ample time to repent, whom God "gave over" and hardened for the Cross to have been certain to occur. (And even some who participated were non-hardened enough to repent at the preaching of Peter). Your side is torn between having God "shutting" people out and "making" them do the sin, (i.e. "preventing them from doing anything else") and on the other hand, it was "their own choice" of "their own wicked nature". If it was necessary that God trap people in sin/harden them to ensure the Cross, determining before they were yet born and even did any evil that they would be ordained to such with no chance of repentance, then they were essentially minding their own business until God programmed them to do that. (i.e. it wasn't necessarily "their nature" that led them to Crucify Jesus). But no matter how you slice it, that "choice" of theirs is really something God did in them.

1. Yes, there were people who had not been hardened but who then were. It is the hardening so that they could do no other than crucify Christ that I'm talking about. If God did this - and you have just admitted He did, how can you square this with your notion of fairness?
2. Yes, there were also non-hardened Jews who crucified the Lord. They were the ones who repented at Peter's preaching.
3. I don't feel torn at all. The sinner whom God leaves in his sinful state and who then crucifies the Lord, that sinner is totally responsible for his own sin. God did not force an innocent to sin - He permitted a wicked person to do what Satan put in his mind.
4. 'Minding their own business' was hating God. They continued to do that when they murdered the Lord. How can you say God must be to blame if He chose to allow this to happen???

Paul is not discussing any such two groups ("the elect and non-elect of all time"), but rather groups that one can cross out of. We all started out as "children of wrath" (and "children of the flesh" for Jews), but these same people can become saved, rather than being unconditionally preordained to wrath. This is what the chapter is talking about. Jews though they were saved by a combination of inheritance and works, but God did not "choose" them as a group for them to automatically be saved. In that natural state, they were vessels of wrath, while the Church as a group (consisting of all races, but largely gentiles, whom God was opening up to) was the group that counted, and thuis the vessels of mercy. (Many non-Calvinists do say that they cannot apostasize if they were really saved).

Romans 9: 22What if God, wanting to show His wrath and to make His power known, endured with much longsuffering the vessels of wrath prepared for destruction, 23and that He might make known the riches of His glory on the vessels of mercy, which He had prepared beforehand for glory, 24even us whom He called, not of the Jews only, but also of the Gentiles? Eric, these two groups were marked out in eternity, not in time. One lot was PREPARED for destruction; the other PREPARED BEFOREHAND for glory.

You mistake the analogy by confusing 'children of wrath' with 'vessels of wrath'. We all were born children of wrath; some then become children of God. Vessels of wrath do not become vessels of mercy.

This is the only explanation that accords with 21Does not the potter have power over the clay, from the same lump to make one vessel for honor and another for dishonor? From the one lump of sinful humanity God in eternity determined to make both sorts. One He left in their sinful state, the other He formed for glory.

In Him

Ian
 

Ian Major

New Member
Skandelon said,
You missed my point here. You have continually said that the hardened cannot be saved because you believe they are "reprobates." Thus, you have taken this verse in question which refers to the Jews who have not yet been saved (you call them "lost" but not "hardened") thus they would be "elect". If they aren't hardened they must be elect, right? Correct me if I'm wrong on that.

Right, If they are not hardened, they are elect. Wrong, the 'Jews who have not yet been saved' are not elect. They include the elect, but most of them are reprobates: only a remnant of Israel is elect.

You missed the point entirely: Paul is speaking of the whole nation when he says 'those who are my flesh'.

So, if Paul is speaking about elect Jews who happen to still be lost when he mentions "some" of them are "provoked to envy" and "might be saved." If only elect Jews have the chance of being provoked to salvation why would he say "might" as if it might not? And why would he say only "some" if the hardened "reprobates" aren't being included in those who might be saved?

As to 'might' and 'some of them',
1. Two sorts are defined here: 'some' is the elect; 'them' are the entire nation. So as far as Paul - or we - are concerned, any of the nation might be saved AS FAR AS WE KNOW. God knows who will and who will not, the elect and the reprobate; we do not.
2. Paul is NOT saying the elect might be saved; he is saying that BY HIS MINISTRY some of them might be saved. He stood where any minister stands today: our efforts 'might' result in any given person being saved. We preach today knowing that God will certainly save His elect among Israel, among Americans, British, etc.; but how our efforts figure in that we don't know.
3. The whole nation can be provoked to envy, the reprobate as well as the elect. For the former, it only adds to their hatred of Christ and His people. For the elect, it draws them to their Saviour. And the 'might' relates to the nation, not to the elect.


In Him

Ian
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
Originally posted by Ian Major:
Skandelon said,
Ian, go back and read Romans 1 and you will see that everyone is without excuse because they KNEW GOD. God has revealed himself to all nations through conscience and creation. You can argue that is not sufficient to lead one to faith in God but I don't see that supported in the text by the mere examples of all those who were "God fearers" who were not of the Jewish nation.

These God-fearers were not heathens who had only natural revelation. They were intimately associated with Israel - they knew of the God of Israel, worshipped Him and were treated as such by the Jews. Acts 10: 22And they said, "Cornelius the centurion, a just man, one who fears God and has a good reputation among all the nation of the Jews, was divinely instructed by a holy angel to summon you to his house, and to hear words from you."
That's fine Ian but again you missed my point. You wrote:

Only those who heard of the God of Israel, e.g. Rahab. And only those who were offered repentance. All the rest perished in their sins. Paul describes the Gentiles as 'without God and without hope'. God did not grant them repentance.
And I was pointing out to you that they were not "without hope" of knowing God because everyone can know God through what has been revealed in creation and man's conscience. Romans 1 is very clear on that point.
 

Skandelon

<b>Moderator</b>
Ok, let me deal with some of the other issues:

Originally posted by Ian Major:
Paul's reference to Israel in Romans 11 is not simple - it must be understood in context. for example, he says in v.7, What then? Israel has not obtained what it seeks; but the elect have obtained it, and the rest were blinded. Are the elect not Israelites? Of course they are. Paul means Israel as a whole, the nation, has not obtained salvation. Only a part of it has.
Yes, the elect are Israelites, that is a reference to the "remnant" of Israel that God had sovereignly reserved to take the message of the cross to the world.

Don't you see it. The Jews have rebelled against God this included a man named Saul along with the other 12 apostles. God seals the nation in their rebellion with the exception of those he wants to carry the message, the remnant of Israel, which included Paul. He was individually selected out of all the other Pharisees and effectually called to his position as an apostle to join the other 11. These are among the REMNANT that Paul speaks of in Romans 9. The rest of the Jews are still hardened until the Passover is accomplished and the Gentiles have fully been accepted into the covenant by the church. The ingrafting of the Gentiles into the church was meant to provoke the hardened nation to envy so that some might "leave their unbelief" and be saved. Its is so simple and that is exactly the way in which Paul explains it here but you have to add so much explaination to your interpretation it makes it all pure non-sense and confusing.

If it were the case that this refers only to the Jews of Christ's day, the principle is still established - God has prevented men from doing anything other than sin. To say He has then extended them the opportunity to repent does not alter the moral case, the one that you use against Calvinists.
But we are not making that case against Calvinists. God didn't ever prevent men from doing anything other than sin from birth. He may have hardened them in their current state of choice but he first allowed them to make that choice and he was patient with them, as Paul explains, but they made themselves "fit for destruction" in their rebellion and they deserved to be judged because they were WITHOUT EXCUSE. Your system gives them an excuse by ultimately making hardening from birth, saying they that have never been able to be willing to choose God and they are "prevented from doing anything other than sin from birth." You are missing the two key words, "from birth." That is the big difference here.

Think about these two scenerios:

1. God hardens a two year old who has done nothing out of the ordinary and uses him to accomplish some purpose and the 2 year old stays hardened and dies and goes to eternal punishment.

2. God loves and longs to gather a 2 year old under his wings of mercy but as the child goes he rebells against all the attempts God makes to reveal himself. God is patient with him holding out his hands to him all day for years and years. At the age of 48 the man is hard hearted and rebellious, set in his ways and on a course for sure destruction. God still acting in mercy hardens him and accomplishes a divine purpose through his rebellion, through the process his hardened heart is provoked and he reconsiders his former position. He repents or maybe he doesn't, either way he is without exuse.

Do you see the difference between the two scenerios Ian?

Arminians are objecting to the first scenerio not the second and the only reason I won't object to the second is because Paul explains why God did it and the outcome. But Calvinists take Paul's explaination for why it is just of God to harden rebellious Jews and apply it to their doctrine of TD to justify why it is just of God to harden newborns. THAT IS NOT WHAT PAUL IS ARGUING !!!

I used to believe that but in my spirit I knew something was wrong with that interpretation and Ian I honestly believe if you search your spirit you will find the same thing.
 

Eric B

Active Member
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1. Yes, there were people who had not been hardened but who then were. It is the hardening so that they could do no other than crucify Christ that I'm talking about. If God did this - and you have just admitted He did, how can you square this with your notion of fairness?
Because He didn't just select them unconditionally out of the blue to do that, as Skan just pointed out. They could have not fallen into that role, but they refused the truth, and then God hardened them into it.
2. Yes, there were also non-hardened Jews who crucified the Lord. They were the ones who repented at Peter's preaching.
OK. Just as long as we understand that crucifying the Lord wasn't something God unconditionally chose individuals to do, and then necessarily left them all in a state of condemnation for it.
3. I don't feel torn at all. The sinner whom God leaves in his sinful state and who then crucifies the Lord, that sinner is totally responsible for his own sin. God did not force an innocent to sin - He permitted a wicked person to do what Satan put in his mind.
4. 'Minding their own business' was hating God. They continued to do that when they murdered the Lord. How can you say God must be to blame if He chose to allow this to happen???
But you and others seem to describe the crucifixion as something God made them do, (and chose them before they were born to do it, etc.) That is where the charge of "forcing the innocent to sin" will come from. But then you come with "leaving them in their sin", and make it appear that it was Satan who chose the person for the act instead. But inasmuch as that is still an unconditional decree of condemnation, it might as well be the same thing (except that maybe Satan might have not chosen them for that. Still, they would be condemned, unconditionally). Otherwise, the statement would be OK.
Eric, these two groups were marked out in eternity, not in time. One lot was PREPARED for destruction; the other PREPARED BEFOREHAND for glory.
This is the only explanation that accords with 21Does not the potter have power over the clay, from the same lump to make one vessel for honor and another for dishonor? From the one lump of sinful humanity God in eternity determined to make both sorts. One He left in their sinful state, the other He formed for glory.
You mistake the analogy by confusing 'children of wrath' with 'vessels of wrath'. We all were born children of wrath; some then become children of God. Vessels of wrath do not become vessels of mercy.
Oh, no? In 2 Tim.2:20, 21, the 'vessels' of honor and dishonor are mentioned again, and a person chooses to be a vessel of honor, rather his choice being because he was preordained as a vessel of honor. God determined beforehand that those who leave themselves in their sinful state constitute the "vessels of wrath", and those who have faith are vessels of mercy. "Vessels" is like a plural unity in this case— Israel for instance, consists of individual "vessels" as all creatures can be likened to vessels, but Israel as a whole was the "vessel", as shown in Isaiah 29:16 & 45:9 and Jer. 18:4-6ff & 25:34 which are the very passages Paul is drawing upon here. So for Israelites trusting in their physical heritage to save them, that group is "vessels of wrath", but believers, Jew and Gentile are vessels of mercy.
 

Ian Major

New Member
Skandelon said,
And I was pointing out to you that they were not "without hope" of knowing God because everyone can know God through what has been revealed in creation and man's conscience. Romans 1 is very clear on that point.

Yes, and as I pointed out, that knowledge is insufficient for salvation. Otherwise, Paul's description of their state as 'without hope' is meaningless.

In Him

Ian
 

Ian Major

New Member
Skandelon said,
Don't you see it. The Jews have rebelled against God this included a man named Saul along with the other 12 apostles. God seals the nation in their rebellion with the exception of those he wants to carry the message, the remnant of Israel, which included Paul. He was individually selected out of all the other Pharisees and effectually called to his position as an apostle to join the other 11. These are among the REMNANT that Paul speaks of in Romans 9. The rest of the Jews are still hardened until the Passover is accomplished and the Gentiles have fully been accepted into the covenant by the church. The ingrafting of the Gentiles into the church was meant to provoke the hardened nation to envy so that some might "leave their unbelief" and be saved. Its is so simple and that is exactly the way in which Paul explains it here but you have to add so much explaination to your interpretation it makes it all pure non-sense and confusing.

Hmmm. So, the elect Paul refers to are just his colleagues of that generation. Then any subsequent generation could see the majority or indeed all of Israel believing. Interesting idea . The blindness in part could then mean only a remnant unsaved in every generation before the end, when all Israel will be saved. I'll have to think about that. It certainly seems contrary to the thrust of what Paul is saying. Paul seems to set the elect over against the hardened, so if the hardening ends in his generation, would all Israel not be saved?

Arminians are objecting to the first scenerio not the second and the only reason I won't object to the second is because Paul explains why God did it and the outcome. But Calvinists take Paul's explaination for why it is just of God to harden rebellious Jews and apply it to their doctrine of TD to justify why it is just of God to harden newborns. THAT IS NOT WHAT PAUL IS ARGUING !!!

Are not all men BORN rebellious? If it OK with you that God harden adult men, why not infant men? But you want hardening to be a temporary thing, one that can eventually be changed by the will of man. So we can have Pharoah truly repenting of his wickedness after Israel has crossed the Red Sea; Judas truly repenting after he betrayed the Lord. Do we see either of these significant events in Scripture? No, we hear nothing of the ruler of Egypt turning to God; and we see only remorse in the son of perdition and him 'going to his own place'.

Is Paul not arguing that man's ultimate fate is set by God before their birth, before they have made a difference between them and their neighbour by their works?

In Him

Ian
 
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