SavedByGrace
Well-Known Member
I disagree that we are the source of that faith … I believe that view runs contrary to the God-centric tone of the first two chapters of Ephesians leading up to it … but Ephesians 2:8 seems silent on that nuance. However, YOUR expert stated the same thing I stated about the need for masculine / feminine tense to agree. His conclusion was the neuter referred to the whole thing. My conclusion was the neuter referred to the whole thing.
Go consult with an expert in Greek. As I stated, I am just a hack, but even a hack knows that much about Greek grammar. The genders match.
you are not correct in "matching genders" in the Greek. It does not always work that way
In John 6:37, Jesus is speaking about those the Father has given Him
"All that the Father gives Me will come to Me, and the one who comes to Me I will by no means cast out"
In the Greek Jesus says, "Πᾶν ὃ", which is in the neuter gender, even though He is referring to persons and not things!
Similarly, in 1 John 1:1, John is speaking about Jesus Christ
That which was from the beginning, which we have heard, which we have seen with our eyes, which we have looked upon, and our hands have handled, concerning the Word of life
here also we have the use of the neuter "Ὃ", four times for the Person Jesus Christ!
For those who reject the words as in the KJV of 1 John 5:7, we have the three neuter nouns, "τὸ πνεῦμα καὶ τὸ ὕδωρ καὶ τὸ αἷμα" in verse 8, described in verse 7 as "ὅτι τρεῖς εἰσιν οἱ μαρτυροῦντες", which is in the masculine!