Humblesmith
Member
Please do not call dispensationalism heresy. You may disagree with it, and whether or not it matches with scripture is in disagreement. But it is not heresy..
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Humblesmith said:Please do not call dispensationalism heresy. You may disagree with it, and whether or not it matches with scripture is in disagreement. But it is not heresy..
Mel Miller said:Humblesmith,
I am a Post-Trib Dispensationalist! I see 3 major Dispenstations!! The OT Dispensation; the NT Dispensation; and the Millennial Dispensation!!!
The Saints of the OT and NT Dispensation comprise the ONE BODY that
is growing unto a "HOLY TEMPLE in the Lord"! Eph.2:11-22. Ths Body
makes up the Bride of the Lamb that will dwell forever in the New Jerusalem after the Martyrs serve God in that Temple in heaven for 1000 years!! Rev.3:11-12; Rev.7:14-17; Rev.20:4-5. The sheep nations that make up the "eternal kingdom" on earth will enter the New Jerusalem at any time, day or night, to be "healed by the leaves of the tree of life"!!!
Matt.25:32-34; Rev.21:24-26; Rev.22:2,14.
Mel Miller www.lastday.net :thumbs:
ituttut said:What about the GRACE dispensation of today?
Agree The GRACE dispensation (This GRACE dispensation) doesn't annul or change requirements of the past.Originally Posted by Mel Miller: I am a Post-Trib Dispensationalist! I see 3 major Dispenstations!! The OT Dispensation; the NT Dispensation; and the Millennial Dispensation!!!
Originally Posted by ituttut: What about the GRACE dispensation of today?
Mel: The GRACE dispensation does not annul or change the requirement for
eternal life before or during the dispensation of the Law! The Law was given as a preparatory tutor until Christ came to "fulfill the law"!! It is always by grace alone that men are saved BY or THRU faith!!!
ituttut said:I Agree This GRACE dispensation doesn't annul or change requirements of the past.
And I also agree it is always by the grace of God in His Mercy that He justifies man, as He will when dispensing His Grace. But you make no distinction of using By as a preposition, changing the word to thru (preposition) in order to fit you mistranslation ... another of your theories. The scripture in order to not contradict reads By faith to be an adverb (not for immediate use), and thru to be an adjective (going or continuing without delay).
I asked about the Grace dispensation of today, of which you did not answer. Paul says Christ gave to him a "dispensational gospel".
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Ituttut,
There is NO difference between “BY faith”, “THRU faith” or "IN/UPON faith"!
At the Council of Acts 15:6-11, Peter affirmed that he took the Gospel to Gentiles and that they were saved “BY Faith” just as the Apostles were saved "BY faith"! Paul taught "the just (Gentiles) shall live BY (ek; because of) faith apart from the deeds of the law"!! Rom.1:17; Rom.3:28; Gal.3:11; Heb.10:38. Translators used the preposition, ek, to say the same thing for OT Jews and NT Gentiles!!!
Jews are “justified BY (ek with the genitive; by means of) faith and Gentiles are justified THRU (dia with the gentive; by means of) faith! Rom.3:30. Jews did not seek salvation BY (ek; by means of) faith; but BY (ek; because of) works of the law!! Rom.9:32. Jews were “broken off BY (no preposition) their unbelief so Gentiles may be grafted in BY (no preposition) their faith”!!! Rom.11:20.
“A man is not justified BY (ek; because of ) the works of the law but THRU (dia; by means of) the faith of Christ. GaL2:16. Paul said: “I live BY (en; in) the faith of the Son of God”! Gal.2:20. “The Scripture foresaw (thru Abraham) that Gentiles would be justified THRU and BY (ek; because of) faith and blessed with believing Abraham”!! Gal.3:8-9,22,24 (ek; THRU faith in vs.8; ek; BY faith in vs.22,24)! There's no difference whether it's EK or DIA, BY or THRU ... by means of!!!
Justification is THRU faith or BY faith, same verse; dia and epi (a 3rd preposition); THRU the means of faith and UPON the basis of faith! Phil.3:9. Ituttut, you have made an unwarranted distinction between OT Jews being saved BY faith and NT Gentiles being saved THRU faith!! It's not a matter of adjective and adverb; but of the means BY or THRU or UPON which Justification is obtained, with any of these prepositions meaning the same thing!!!
You Wrote:
1. Can we believe this?
2. I say we can identify this "dispensational" gospel Paul was given. Paul says it is New, so shouldn't we identify what this New wine is that must go into a New Bottle?
3. Paul says God had "hidden" from man this New information. Any ideas along this line?
Joseph_Botwinick said:God was probably judging their dispensationalist heresy.
You have proof a veil has been removed from your eyes Brother Ed.Ed Edwards said:AMEN Bropther Ituttut -- Preach it!
Exactly! That's the reason I pointed out to you error you put forth. All you did was reword "error". Please read Hebrews 11 once again, and tell us how many were "justified through" faith; and then those by and/or thru faith. Zero (0) justified through faith.Mel Miller said:
There is NO difference between “BY faith”, “THRU faith” or "IN/UPON faith"!
First we know this was the only Gentile Peter ever preached at or to, and this was God's doing. The purpose? It had to be so for Paul to be accepted by the Jewish community (that is what is happening in these verses) as being the only Apostle appointed by Christ from heaven to preach to the Gentile's. The Apostles gave their blessing for Paul to go to the Gentile with the gospel of Grace. You cannot find in the Word of God any of the Apostle's preaching their "circumcision gospel" to the "uncircumcised" while Jerusalem and the Temple stood. That "other gospel" of the Jew was never meant for we Gentiles (Jew now seen as Gentile) to enter the Body Church by His Grace.
At the Council of Acts 15:6-11, Peter affirmed that he took the Gospel to Gentiles and that they were saved “BY Faith” just as the Apostles were saved "BY faith"! Paul taught "the just (Gentiles) shall live BY (ek; because of) faith apart from the deeds of the law"!! Rom.1:17; Rom.3:28; Gal.3:11; Heb.10:38. Translators used the preposition, ek, to say the same thing for OT Jews and NT Gentiles!!!
You are correct as to "through" (not THRU) being Romanized dia, in this verse, and in this verse a prepositional phrase is seen that has adjectival relation to faith and through being seen as "after". Paul makes separate By and Through for a reason.
Jews are “justified BY (ek with the genitive; by means of) faith and Gentiles are justified THRU (dia with the gentive; by means of) faith! Rom.3:30. Jews did not seek salvation BY (ek; by means of) faith; but BY (ek; because of) works of the law!! Rom.9:32. Jews were “broken off BY (no preposition) their unbelief so Gentiles may be grafted in BY (no preposition) their faith”!!! Rom.11:20.
It looks in places you say what I say. By the faith of Christ Jesus, which we come through, we are today justified. Before Jesus no one could come through the faith that He had. It was impossible to come through faith that had not been shown. Habakkuk 2:4 tells us this. It is by His faith that we live. But who knew His name, and what would that faith be?“A man is not justified BY (ek; because of ) the works of the law but THRU (dia; by means of) the faith of Christ. GaL2:16. Paul said: “I live BY (en; in) the faith of the Son of God”! Gal.2:20. “The Scripture foresaw (thru Abraham) that Gentiles would be justified THRU and BY (ek; because of) faith and blessed with believing Abraham”!! Gal.3:8-9,22,24 (ek; THRU faith in vs.8; ek; BY faith in vs.22,24)! There's no difference whether it's EK or DIA, BY or THRU ... by means of!!!
Justification is THRU faith or BY faith, same verse; dia and epi (a 3rd preposition); THRU the means of faith and UPON the basis of faith! Phil.3:9. Ituttut, you have made an unwarranted distinction between OT Jews being saved BY faith and NT Gentiles being saved THRU faith!! It's not a matter of adjective and adverb; but of the means BY or THRU or UPON which Justification is obtained, with any of these prepositions meaning the same thing!!!
Good point, and Yes you have it right, for today. But you still "oppose" the teaching of the Bible. James, Peter, John and the rest of the "Kingdom Church" shook hands with Paul, Barnabas, and Titus not to include the "uncircumcised" in their gospel. Christ Jesus gave authority to Paul to go to both the Gentile and the Jew, of which He did with the "grace commission", and not the "great commission".Mel Miller said:ituttut
You Wrote:
1. Can we believe this?
2. I say we can identify this "dispensational" gospel Paul was given. Paul says it is New, so shouldn't we identify what this New wine is that must go into a New Bottle?
3. Paul says God had "hidden" from man this New information. Any ideas along this line?
I agree with you! But don't confuse the means of salvation with the NEW
revelations Paul gives concerning the RESULTS of our Faith!! The most important RESULT of that revelation is that both OT Jews and NT Gentiles belong to the same "ONE BODY that is still growing unto a Holy Temple in the Lord of which Paul became the Messenger"!!! Eph.2:11 to Eph.3:7.
But Peter was sent to the first Gentile quite sometime later after Damascus Road, after Christ sent Paul into an Arabian desert to teach Paul for about three years the gospel of God's Grace for the world. Forty years in the desert for Moses to deliver Israel, over three and a half years preparing the Apostles, for Pentecostal understanding, and now about 3 years preparing Saul/Paul with the gospel of God's Grace.
Peter learned this truth in embryonic form! Paul gave expression to its
having been a "mystery" hidden from OT Saints!! We must not twist the truth to force-fit a dispensational separation of OT and NT Saints!!!