No pre-mill claims a third coming in Revelation 20. We keep telling you Jesus is on the earth the entire 1,000 years. It is your irrational view that states Jesus is not on the earth, and needs to come a third time.
No third coming?
Then Jesus doesn't comeback after the short time when Satan stirs up the nations after the 1000 year reign?
Or, Jesus doesn't come to earth to reign for 1000 years?
Which of the above doesn't happen?
If they both happen, then, in your view, Jesus comes to earth 3 times, not 2.
Why was Eve decieved? You asked why Satan needed to decieve people after a thousand years. It is not their condition at all that necessitates deception. Eve did not need to be deceived. Satan was allowed to deceive her. Eve was not a sinner either at that point. So why claim those at the end of the Millennium have to still be sinners? That thought is not rational. Even if perfect humans like Eve without sin can be deceieved, deception does not determine their state prior to being deceived. Deception brings about a result desired by Satan. The deception is Satan's intended result. People currently live in a deceived state not knowing the truth of God's Word and power.
So, those who would be deceived, in your view, after the 1000 year reign of Christ, would not be sinners, but saints who are incited to kill other saints by Satan's deception?
Is that correct? Do you believe that?
How do you get that from Revelation 20:1-10?
Satan was allowed for no apparent stated reason, unless you take the book of Job into consideration, to decieve Eve. God allowed Satan to decieve in order to put humans under a test to see how willing they are to rebel against God. In Revelation 20:8 we see humanity put to the test again. The reason why there was no sin in the Millennium is because in Daniel 9:24 it was promised that sin and transgression would be removed.
So, perfect humanity falls in the garden a second time?
How do you ever find that in the Bible? You are making up a fantastical narrative from thin air.
Satan was loosed to deceive the nations, and John states a reason.
"And shall go out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth, Gog, and Magog, to gather them together to battle: the number of whom is as the sand of the sea."
This war and battle never even happens, as they are all consumed by fire before fighting even starts. Satan deceieved Eve to try eating the fruit. Satan will deceive many people to start a war when no one has had any wars for a thousand years. Satan did not appear to Job, and straight up deceieved Job. Satan took another route that took everything away from Job even his health. But the end result for all 3 examples is to turn humans against God.
So, perfect humans are made imperfect by Satan's deception? You have no supporting text in the Bible, but you have a fantastical narrative for a movie.
Deception does not need humans to be sinners. Deception does not need humans to be righteous, or without sin. Saying these people had to be a certain way to deny this millennium is not rational.
So perfect humans can, and will rebel against Jesus, even though Jesus has redeemed them. In your view, somehow Satan, makes Jesus payment null and void a second time.
I must say, your view is as irrational as I have ever read.
Most dispensationalist claim there are still sinners who are constantly dying in a state of death. They have no proof in Scripture to verify that. You think there is no proof that Jesus is on the earth. What point is a second coming if Jesus does not come to earth? Are you saying Jesus was never on the earth at the first coming to be consistent in your rational thinking of what a coming even is? The first coming could be just as symbolic as your second coming. It would be irrational to say one was physical and the other was only symbolic. If you are going to make up your own symbolic second coming why not state those in the 2nd century made up their own symbolic first coming that never happened? Seems amil throughout time are irrational and literally have two definitions of the word "coming". One literal and the other only figurative.
I am saying that the millennium is now. Satan is presently bound for a period of time (while our King is on his long journey [see Matthew 25]) and there will be a short time at the end when Satan is given the same allowance to attack Christians as he was with Job, except then Satan can kill the Church. It is at that time when Christ will return. That will be his 2nd return. That will be when he comes with the sword of judgment in his mouth. That is when he speaks the word and all humanity (outside of the church) is consumed by His wrath (just as Revelation 19 tells us).
You demand a linear timeline in Revelation, but John is not giving you a linear timeline. Until you recognize your error, you will not understand.