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Is everything that happens God's will?

Discussion in 'Baptist Theology & Bible Study' started by Terry_Herrington, Jun 13, 2006.

  1. whatever

    whatever New Member

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    John 4:34 says "Jesus said to them, 'My food is to do the will of him who sent me and to accomplish his work.'" Reckon what that work was that Jesus was sent to accomplish, if it was not saving His people from their sins?
     
  2. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    The greek word for work (ergon) also means "act" or "deed".
     
  3. standingfirminChrist

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    Not everything that happens is God's will. God is not willing that any should perish...

    Many like to use the verse found in 1 Thes. 5: In everything give thanks, for this is the will of God; in Christ Jesus concerning you.

    That is not what it means. It is saying whatever happens, we need to thank God, not for the event, but for His goodness and faithfulness to not put on us more than we can bear. Thank Him that He is there with you to carry you through the trials.
     
  4. Dale-c

    Dale-c Active Member

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    If everything is not according to God's will, then somethings are against His will.
    If somethings are against His will, then Man is sometimes more powerful.
    Man is not more powerful, so everything is God's will or it wouldn't happen
     
  5. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    ...like sin.
    ...and the strawman begins...
    ...applying this to your first and second point, God is the cause of sin.
     
  6. whatever

    whatever New Member

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    Then what was the "act" or "deed" that Jesus was sent to accomplish, if it was not saving His people from their sins?
     
  7. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    He was the atonement for the whole world, not "His people".
     
  8. whatever

    whatever New Member

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    So the angel who said "he will save his people from their sins" was wrong? Are you sure?
     
  9. standingfirminChrist

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    When the angel said 'He shall save His people from their sins,' he was not speaking of the thousands of Gentiles that have been saved since His death, burial and resurrection. The angel was speaking of the Jewish people who would place their trust in Him.

    When we go into the book of the Acts of the Apostles, we see that salvation was being offered to the Gentiles for the first time.

    Christ said, 'Whosoever will, let him come and drink of the water of life freely. The Word of God further tells us that Christ died 'not for our sins only, but for the sins of the whole world.'

    The whole world covers every single man, woman and child on the planet.
     
  10. Terry_Herrington

    Terry_Herrington New Member

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    :thumbs: AMEN:thumbs:
     
  11. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    That is perfectly aligned with God's will. In context, it is "God is not willing that any [of us, the elect] should perish. And none of the elect will perish. So God's will is done perfectly.
     
  12. Skandelon

    Skandelon <b>Moderator</b>

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    Allow scripture to interpret scripture: 1 Tim 2:3 "This is good, and pleases God our Savior, 4 who wants all men to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth."

    This is an expression of God's desire to see all come to the knowledge of truth and be saved. He doesn't desire this more than His desires for men to be free and accountable however, thus He doesn't force or causually determine salvation either. He allows whosoever will to come and be saved and expresses a desire for all to do so.
     
  13. npetreley

    npetreley New Member

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    It's an expression of God's desire to see all KINDS of men come to the knowledge of the truth and be saved. This is made evident by the context:

    Let scripture interpret scripture, indeed. He died for many, not all. So if it says "many" in one place and "all" in another, what do you do? You can interpret "all" to be "all of subset", but you cannot interpret "many" to be "all". Therefore anywhere it says "all" in reference to those for whom Christ died must be "all of subset", or else it contradicts other scripture.
     
  14. webdog

    webdog Active Member
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    You interpret the many to mean all, after "all" is quite a few, and would be regarded as many.
     
  15. Brother Bob

    Brother Bob New Member

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    Where do you get the "KINDS" from npet;?
     
  16. Revmitchell

    Revmitchell Well-Known Member
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    Im not sure wher you got that from but there is no truth to it. "Many does not negate "All". That is what we call "Reaching". But grabbing hold of nothing.
     
  17. standingfirminChrist

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    To say that Christ did not die for all negates the scripture that proclaimes

    Christ certainly did die for the whole world, all peoples on this earth. If He did not, there would be need of the same sacrifices that were brought to the tabernacle for the covering of sins.
     
  18. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Curious

    I know this is off the subject, but it is a short question not worthy of opening an entire thread. I have no problem with it, I'm just curious to know why you are putting a copyright symbol at the bottom of your post, standingfirminChrist? Again, just curious. Not debating.
     
  19. standingfirminChrist

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    Philip,

    The signature poem is a poem I wrote. And have it copyrighted. Because it is copyrighted, I also include the copyright symbol.
     
  20. Phillip

    Phillip <b>Moderator</b>

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    Gotcha. Yes, in order to keep your copyright active it is certainly a good idea to use the copyright notice every single time it is printed. I was just curious, I thought maybe you were copyrighting your entire post, which I thought might have been a little odd. Sorry for the confusion. :smilewinkgrin:
     
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