thisnumbersdisconnected
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Furthermore, consider the word "Satan." It is a name for the fallen angel who leads the demons, true, but it is also a normal Greek word meaning "adversary." In almost every case where it refers to Satan (capital "S") it has a definite article in the Greek--"The Satan, the adversary." This means the one and only, the pre-determined adversary, the Devil.
However, in the case of Peter in all three Synoptics, there is no definite article, meaning that Jesus was calling Peter "an adversary," not "The Satan." Hopefully this clears things up.
In the Complete Word Study of the New Testament edited by Spiros Zodhiates, Th.D, an eminent Greek scholar who founded and advanced AMG Ministries and edited the Key Word Study Bible, it is stated that the primary usage of sarkos is for the literal being Satan, but as John has stated, is also used in the description of an adversary. The primary usage, according to Zodhiates, is for Satan, and he makes note of the fact on page 1280 of his Complete work that Jesus applied this epithet to Peter to call attention to not only his unintentioned opposition to Christ's mission, but also to call attention to how his weakness was used by Satan himself to attempt to deflect the apostles' convictions about who Jesus is from leading them to the conclusion of what the eventual crucifixion accomplished.Just a side question:
Under the strongs number (G4567)it suggests that there is a definite article.
So why do you say there is not and how is that they could be wrong.
I am just asking
So what Zodhiates says -- and just as a personal note, I greatly respect his opinion on the original Greek and own an NASB Key Word Study Bible -- is that Jesus didn't call Peter "Satan" but did call his statement, and for that moment his attitude, adversarial, and made the connection to what -- or rather, who -- inspired that statement in the first place.
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