Featured Is Mattew 12:40 Employing Common Jewish Idiomatic Language?

It's a henworth.

Rob

 

And when he had fasted forty days and forty nights, he was afterward an hungred.

John Gill

..... As Moses did, when he was about to deliver the law to the Israelites, Exodus 34:28 and as Elijah did, when he bore his testimony for the Lord of hosts, 1 Kings 19:8 so did Christ, when he was about to publish the Gospel of his grace, and bear witness to the truth. "Forty nights" as well as days, are mentioned; partly to show that these were whole entire days, consisting of twenty four hours; and partly to distinguish this fast of Christ from the common fastings of the Jews, who used to eat in the night, though they fasted in the day: for according to their canonsF26, they might eat and drink as soon as it was dark, and that till cock crowing; and others say, till break of day. MaimonidesF1 says, they might eat and drink at night, in all fasts, except the ninth of Ab. What is very surprising in this fasting of our Lord, which was made and recorded, not for our imitation, is, that during the whole time he should not be attended with hunger; for it is added,

 

Returning to topic: Does Matthew 12:40 literally mean three 24 hour days, or does it mean part of Friday, all of Saturday, and part of Sunday? It means 3 days or part days, probably less than 48 hours.

 

And if you read my on topic post, you found that the answer is yes. As you may know, the bible contains two examples of using three days to mean the day after tomorrow. And one of them is from the lips of Jesus. Case closed.

 

The answer to Matthew 12:40 (three days and three nights) is to accept that Jesus was using a colloquialism, three days and three nights only referring to three days or part days rather than 72 literal hours. In 1 Samuel 30, verse 12, the account of a starving servant is recorded as follows: “…For he had not eaten bread or drunk water for three days and three nights.” But in verse thirteen, his problem had started three days ago. This passage therefore suggests, and I accept that “three days and three nights” is a figurative reference to days or parts of days and not to a literal 72 hours or a literal three daylight periods and three darkness periods because three days ago would only include two darkness periods. If you compare 2 Chronicles 10:5 (return to me in three days) with 2 Chronicles 10:12 (came to Rehoboam on the third day) you will see that three days and on the third day mean the same thing, indicating that both inclusive counting was used and parts of days were counted as days in the pre-scientific culture. Inclusive counting means that you count today as the first day when saying something happened three or any number of days ago or in the future. Therefore, “three days and three nights” is a figurative reference to three days ago, and three days ago is the day before yesterday or literally only two nights ago. The point of Matthew 12:40 was not to create conflict with the many scriptures that say “on the third day” but only to draw a parallel with Jonah by using the terminology of Jonah 1:17.

Similarly, the reference to “after three days” in Mark 8:31 refers to parts of days such that the hours between His death and sundown represents one day and the hours of darkness on Sunday until He arose before sunup represents the third day. Using this interpretation the idea that Jesus was crucified on Friday can be supported. Note that the parallel passages to Mark 8:31 in Matthew (16:21) and Luke (9:22) say “on the third day.”

The idea that “on the third day” refers to the day after tomorrow (Friday to Sunday) is supported by Luke 13:31 to 33. Jesus is on His way to Jerusalem (v. 22) and says in verse 32 that He will reach His goal (reach Jerusalem in my opinion) on the third day. Jesus then clarifies His itinerary in verse 33 by stating, “I must journey on today and tomorrow and the next; for it cannot be that a prophet should perish outside of Jerusalem.” Therefore, in the idiom of the day, “on the third day” means the day after tomorrow or in our period of interest, from Friday to Sunday.

 

The OP question has been answered, the OP author has arbitrarily ruled against the answer. Fine. Jesus was buried on Friday, and arose on Sunday, less than 48 hours, yet it was on the third day and is consistent with the colloquialism used in Matthew 12:40.

 

I want to add, though it may give very little, that according to Jewish custom a day starts at the fall of night and continues until the next fall of night. (The Jewish Day).

This can be combined with the fact part of a day may be reckoned as a day using Jewish idomatic language. (Australia Jews for Jesus: Three Days? Three nights? How does that work?)

Now the final judge of whether Jesus is using idiomatic language is that given we are given less than 72 hours in the bible, it would seem. Thus, He must have been using idiomatic language given what the Word of God tells us. This, I believe on faith that the bible is in fact the very Words of God Himself.

Thus, Jesus is crucified towards the end of one day, which in idiomatic language may be counted as a day. Jesus is in the grave for a whole day. Then Jesus is in the grave about half a day, which may count as a day. Thus the term "three days."

There is more to be explained it would seem, given the quote concerning Jonah, but that will likely take language scholars to explain things to us.

 

The answer has been provided, and you simply offered absurd arguments to nullify the presentation. Your rebuttal betrays a bias against the obvious. I provided two examples and I carefully explained how they demonstrated unscientific statements concerning duration. I showed how the term "three days and three nights" was used to describe a period containing less than three nights, thus showing that the term is used without regard for our scientific counting bias. And I showed how "in three days" sometimes refers to the day after tomorrow or less than 72 hours. If you put the examples together, then three days and three nights can refer to 3 days and 3 days can refer to the day after tomorrow or Friday to Sunday. Case closed as far as providing examples.

Jesus was buried on Friday, and arose on Sunday, and that period of time, less than 48 hours, was described as three days and three nights.

 

I was going to suggest going to the sabbaths and the feasts to time Christ's crucifixion and His resurrection.

I don't think tradition is so wrong in this respect. Jesus is quoted over and over as saying He would be raised on the third day. Not on the fourth. That pretty much settles it for me.

Preparation Day, An high Sabbath Day, the following Day. The following day was the first day of the week. That means the previous day was Saturday, and the day before that was Friday.

 

Your explanation makes sense, but so do these others:

John Wesley: It was the preparation of the passover — For this reason both the Jews and Pilate were desirous to bring the matter to a conclusion. Every Friday was called the preparation, (namely, for the Sabbath.) And as often as the passover fell on a Friday, that day was called the preparation of the passover.

B.W. Johnson: 31. Because it was the preparation. For the passover. See verse 14. That sabbath was a high day. A double Sabbath, both the weekly Sabbath and a passover Sabbath.

John Gill's comment is lengthy: John 19 - John Gill’s Exposition of the Bible - Bible Commentary​

But I think the question of whether or not idiomatic language was employed is answered in the last part of the the prophecy: " . . . in the heart of the earth."

 

Astronomically are there other years that could fit?

I have read that the census described in Luke likely took place in 4 BC for instance.