Van,
re: "I showed with two examples where '3 days and 3 nights' could be understood to be an idiom meaning the day after tomorrow. Since this is the simplest solution to the problem, it remains the one I accept."
That's an issue for a different topic.
Let me try again:
1. The Messiah said that three nights would be involved with His time in the "heart of the earth".
2. There are some who believe that the crucifixion took place on the 6th day of the week with the resurrection taking place on the 1st day of the week.
3. Of those, there are some who believe that the "heart of the earth" is referring to the tomb.
4. However, those two beliefs allow for only 2 nights to be involved.
5. To account for the discrepancy, some of the above say that the Messiah was using common figure of speech/colloquial language of the time, i.e., that it is was common to forecast or say that a day or a night would be involved with an event when no part of the day or no part of the night could occur.
6.But In order for someone to legitimately say that it was common, they would have to know of more that 1 example to make that assertion.
6. For the purpose of this topic, I am merely asking for some of the examples being used to support an assertion of commonality.
There is nothing in your 2 examples that precludes at least a portion of each one of the daytimes and at least a portion of each one of the night times.