convicted1
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So you're saying that "Lucifer" was a name given to the Babylonian king?
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Not even remotely. I am saying that the word "lucifer" was not invented as a word (or proper name) in English until the first time it appears in English translation. These translations did not use the Hebrew for this word but transliterated from the Latin translation. If anyone (yes a Babylonian king) was called something, he was called helel. It probably wasn't a proper name, though. So Lucifer is a 16-17th century creation that never existed before that. No one ever believed Satan used to be called "Lucifer" until English translations using the Latin term in transliteration. Thus it is a silly doctrine and completely anachronistic.So you're saying that "Lucifer" was a name given to the Babylonian king?
Not even remotely. I am saying that the word "lucifer" was not invented as a word (or proper name) in English until the first time it appears in English translation. These translations did not use the Hebrew for this word but transliterated from the Latin translation. If anyone (yes a Babylonian king) was called something, he was called helel. It probably wasn't a proper name, though. So Lucifer is a 16-17th century creation that never existed before that. No one ever believed Satan used to be called "Lucifer" until English translations using the Latin term in transliteration. Thus it is a silly doctrine and completely anachronistic.
helel, morning star, phosphorus, — whatever.I have always thought they were, but after talking to someone tonight via the phone, they confronted me with the idea that Lucifer wasn't Satan. That took me completely by surprise. I read in Isaiah 13-14, but I am still not convinced by what he told me. What are your thoughts?
:laugh: ............ :wavey:phosphorus, — whatever.
:laugh: ............ :wavey:
phosphorus is the cousin of Saul Ferr. :laugh:
Oh that is just bad! :laugh:
helel, morning star, phosphorus, — whatever.
I thought your question was about the subject of the prophecy, not the etymology of the word, lucifer.
To say the prophecy has nothing to do whatever with Satan is like saying the West Wing has nothing to do with Obama.
Neither is Isa. 14 referring to Satan nor was the Babylonian king ever called "lucifer" until English translations botched it up.Let me try to clear up the muddy H2O up a bit, okay?
Wednesday evening, I was talking, via the phone, with a UB Elder(ordained preacher, iow), and we began discussing the bible. We ended up on the subject of Satan. I made a reference to Satan's fall being told in Isaiah 14. He then told me that Satan wasn't Lucifer whatsoever, but that Lucifer was a man, who was king of Babylon, if I am remembering correctly. This caught me off guard, because I thought that chapter, and Ezekiel 28 told of Satan.
That's why I asked if Satan, the one who rebelled against God, was Lucifer. I have always thought that Lucifer and Satan were the same individual.
Read any scholarly commentary on Isaiah and then talk to me about amateurish and lacking merit. Otherwise, your view is sinking in sand.Gesenius didn't think "lucifer" is a bad rendering, but it doesn't matter. I would simply caution the reader against throwing the baby out with the bath water.* Who knows why the word was transliterated here, but the assumption that the translation was "botched" because of a lack of scholarship on the part of the translators is amateurish and lacks merit.
*The bath water here being the widely popular assumption that Isaiah 14 is a direct revelation about the person of Satan, and the baby being eminently relevant implications gleaned concerning said person.
Read any scholarly commentary on Isaiah and then talk to me about amateurish and lacking merit. Otherwise, your view is sinking in sand.
On this occasion, yes I will go w/ scholarly commentaries.I believe what you are saying is that the "scholarly commentary" is the one you agree with.
I'm not engendering a debate with anyone. I am simply agreeing with you that there is no scholarly debate. Only fundies where the KJV is still used is this an issue. I feel like I have to keep repeating myself.Since there is little scholarly debate on the fact Lucifer as a name for the Satan, did not exist before the English Translation, what Greektim has engendered is a debate with KJV advocates, which is a waste of time. The actual debate is whether this figure is a double referent to the king or line of kings in view contextually and "the Satan" or simply a vague reference to a king or line of kings.
I would side with Dr. Wallace that this is probably not a reference to the Satan. His translation, i.e. the NET, has shining one, but howling one makes for a far better taunt.
Read any scholarly commentary on Isaiah and then talk to me about amateurish and lacking merit. Otherwise, your view is sinking in sand.
LUCIFER:
Nebuchadnezzar called by this name
Isaiah 14:12 How art thou fallen from heaven, O Lucifer, son of the morning! how art thou cut down to the ground, which didst weaken the nations!