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Is some Bible-correcting in effect accepted by believers?

Forever Settled

Active Member
He keeps it up and I'm gonna start reporting his posts. I always warn before reporting a post, he's now been warned.

When Ricky starts every post with “thats not true”.......what is the opposite of of that ? A lie.

Loosen that nasty headband let some blood flow.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
That can’t be right they all use different manuscripts .....and say completly different things.
All major Greek text are in agreement 90-95 % of the time, and there are NO doctrines affected by any of their differences!
Much more important than which Greek text being used would be the philosophy of translation method, whether its formal, Dynamic, Optimal etc!
 

HankD

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
God didn’t keep his promise ? He promised his word to all generations. He knew not all generations would speak Hebrew and Greek.
There are 6500 spoken languages in the world today. So, I disagree.

God preserved His word in the Greek and the Hebrew.

The King James bible translators acknowledged this.

There are multitudes of books, Lexicons, dictionaries, grammars, translations and tools from ancient times until now in every language teaching and preserving these biblical languages.

Psalm 68:11 The Lord gave the word: great was the company of those that published it.

The biblical languages of Greek and Hebrew NEVER CHANGE because GOD'S Word never changes.

English is dynamic, it changes and is updated EVERY SINGLE day.
Here is 14th century English.

2:8 For bi grace ye ben sauyd bi feith, and this not of you; for it is the yifte of God,
2:9 not of werkis, that no man haue glorie.
2:10 For we ben the makyng of hym, maad of nouyt in Crist Jhesu, in good werkis, whiche God hath ordeyned, that we go in tho werkis.
—Effesies

God has also given gifts and gifted men to the church.
1 Timothy 3:15 But if I tarry long, that thou mayest know how thou oughtest to behave thyself in the house of God, which is the church of the living God, the pillar and ground of the truth.

And this promise:
James 1:5 If any of you lack wisdom, let him ask of God, that giveth to all men liberally, and upbraideth not; and it shall be given him.

 

37818

Well-Known Member
Any that was done in an acceptable fashion, so take your pick, Kjv, Nkjv, Nas, Esv, Niv etc all are the word of God to us in English!
They all are the inerrant word of God less where they disagree with what can be identiied as the oringianl raading/meaning. My preferred translation is the KJV.
 

37818

Well-Known Member
NO doctrines affected by any of their differences!
False. The ESV Revelation 13:8; The KJV 1 John 5:7. to give two examples. Now had you said essential doctrines, that would have been a different argument.
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Thats my point .......the Bible correctors dont know ONE thing about the Originals.
But they want to refer to them constantly.
Would you refer to the original mss of the KJV instead? How do we know that the KJV we hold in our hands is true to the original mss of the translators? You know, they had not computers, word processors, or typewriters. Just as the original mss of the Hebrew and Greek Bible, the KJV was originally written my hand on paper--in other words, manuscripts. Where are they?
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
God didn’t keep his promise ? He promised his word to all generations. He knew not all generations would speak Hebrew and Greek.
Well, first of all, your moniker "Forever Settled" refers to "in heaven" in the rest of that verse, not on earth.

Secondly, every generation since Moses has had people who spoke Hebrew--or have you not heard of the Jewish people? And every generation since Christ has had those who spoke Greek--or have you not heard of the land of Greece (not to mention Christians who knew Koine Greek over the centuries)?
 

loDebar

Well-Known Member
Well, first of all, your moniker "Forever Settled" refers to "in heaven" in the rest of that verse, not on earth.

Secondly, every generation since Moses has had people who spoke Hebrew--or have you not heard of the Jewish people? And every generation since Christ has had those who spoke Greek--or have you not heard of the land of Greece (not to mention Christians who knew Koine Greek over the centuries)?
John, my ancestors probably knew neither language.
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
They all are the inerrant word of God less where they disagree with what can be identiied as the oringianl raading/meaning. My preferred translation is the KJV.
Kjv preferred is fine, as mine is Nas, but its just the KJVO that has the problem of cannot be proven true!
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
False. The ESV Revelation 13:8; The KJV 1 John 5:7. to give two examples. Now had you said essential doctrines, that would have been a different argument.
Yes, should have said essential doctrines, but even in those 2 verses, you are assuming the Kjv got it right, and also, modern translations in some ways even better highlighting the deity of Jesus better then the Kjv does!
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Would you refer to the original mss of the KJV instead? How do we know that the KJV we hold in our hands is true to the original mss of the translators? You know, they had not computers, word processors, or typewriters. Just as the original mss of the Hebrew and Greek Bible, the KJV was originally written my hand on paper--in other words, manuscripts. Where are they?
Do we even know which TR they used, and where Erasmus got his own compiled text from, as at times he used the Vulgate and at others times, who knows?
Didn't he have and use like 5 different TR versions himself?
And do we have today all of the notes and the actual differences in texts they used to make their rendering decisions from?
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Well, first of all, your moniker "Forever Settled" refers to "in heaven" in the rest of that verse, not on earth.

Secondly, every generation since Moses has had people who spoke Hebrew--or have you not heard of the Jewish people? And every generation since Christ has had those who spoke Greek--or have you not heard of the land of Greece (not to mention Christians who knew Koine Greek over the centuries)?
God had His inspired originals written down in those languages, so why would He choose to NOT preserve them for us in Greek and Hebrew, and choose 1611 English instead?
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
John, my ancestors probably knew neither language.
But someone did. :) I don't think the point was that everyone knew the Bible languages, but that the prophecy Forever Settled quoted was that every generation could know the Word of God, and that's true, in Hebrew and Greek much more than English.
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Do we even know which TR they used, and where Erasmus got his own compiled text from, as at times he used the Vulgate and at others times, who knows?
Didn't he have and use like 5 different TR versions himself?
And do we have today all of the notes and the actual differences in texts they used to make their rendering decisions from?
Erasmus had 6 mss, I believe. I'd be surprised if he used any other than his own edited TR. The KJV translators started with Beza but did their own textual criticism. As for their notes, recently the notes of one single translator was found, but other than that--nope.
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
False. The ESV Revelation 13:8; The KJV 1 John 5:7. to give two examples. Now had you said essential doctrines, that would have been a different argument.
What minor doctrine (other than poison drinking and snake handling) is affected by the differences in Greek texts?
 

Yeshua1

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
Erasmus had 6 mss, I believe. I'd be surprised if he used any other than his own edited TR. The KJV translators started with Beza but did their own textual criticism. As for their notes, recently the notes of one single translator was found, but other than that--nope.
So we cannot even piece together will full confidence exactly what they used to make what they did then!
How is that any different than not having the originals around?
 

John of Japan

Well-Known Member
Site Supporter
False. The ESV Revelation 13:8; The KJV 1 John 5:7. to give two examples. Now had you said essential doctrines, that would have been a different argument.
If you want to say various translations affect doctrine, that's one thing. But no doctrine, major or minor, is affected by the differences in manuscripts. 1 John 5:7 is no exception. The trinity can be proven many ways without that verse, much as I love it.
 
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